"Ki Yimacher l'cha Achicha ... ". Why does the Torah use the passive term?
Rashi and Rashbam: Because it is referring to someone who was sold as an Eved Ivri by Beis-Din because he stole and was unable to pay. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 40.
What are the implications of the words "Ki Yimacher l'cha Achicha"?
Refer to Sh'mos 21:2:2:1 and note.
Sifri: "L'cha" implies that, when Beis-Din sell the Eved Ivri (who cannot pay for his theft) they must sell him to a Yisrael - and not to a Nochri..
What are the ramifications of the comparison between Eved Ivri and Amah Ivriyah?
Rashi #1 (in Mishpatim Sh'mos, 4:7): It teaches us that an Eved Ivri, like an Amah Ivriyah, does not go out in the event that the master destroys one of her limbs.
Rashi #2: Refer to 15:12:4:1.
Kidushin, 14b: It teaches us that, like an Amah Ivriyah, 1 an Eved Ivri can be acquired with money.
See Torah Temimah, note 41.
Having already taught us the Din regarding someone sold to be an Eved Ivri in Sh'mos, 21:2, why does the Torah repeat it here?
Rashi: Because of two new points that the Torah adds here that it did not mention there 1 1. To teach us that also an Amah Ivriyah 2 goes out after six years (and in the Yovel - Rashi in Mishpatim Sh'mos, 4:7); 2. The Din of Ha'anakah (providing the Eved Ivri with gifts when he leaves - See Pasuk 14). 3
Whom is "Va'avadcha <i>Sheish Shanim" coming to exclude?
Kidushin, 17b: It excludes all the potential heirs - even his daughter - for whom the Eved Ivri is not obligated to work in the event that his master dies - with the exception of the master's son, 1
Kidushin, 14b: It precludes an Eved Ivri who sells himself from the Din of six years - who may therefore sell himself for even more than six years. 2
