Why does the Torah juxtapose the Parshah of Nega'im to that of Yoledes?
Seforno: Because Tzara'as generally occurs (following intimacy) when the blood of Nidus has not yet purified.
Seforno and Moshav Zekenim (in 12:8) #1: Someone who is not careful [to observe] the Dinim of Yoledes and Nidah 1 (which were stated together with those of a Yoledes), will bring Tzara'as 2 on his children. 3
Moshav Zekenim (in 12:8) #2: Nega'im is written next to Korbanos [Yoledes], to teach that if one deceives the Kohen (and asks him to offer a Chatas for Bi'as Nidah be'Shogeg, and really, he was Mezid), his children will be Metzora'im, to publicize his sin - as the Pasuk writes in Koheles 5:5 "Al Titen es Picha Lachati es Besarecha] ve'Al Tomar Lifnei ha'Mal'ach ki Shegagah hi". 4
Moshav Zekenim (in 12:8) #3: The Parshah of foods that are permitted precedes the Parshah of Yoledes. Before the baby is born, Hashem tells says to him 'Know on what condition I created you! If you do good deeds, look what fine foods re prepared for you - oxen, sheep, birds, fish! But if you anger Me, see what follows - the Parshah of Nega'im!'
Moshav Zekenim: If a Nidah is intimate with her husband, her children will be stricken with Tzara'as for twenty generations; one who is not careful about this, in the end he will get Tzara'as. Tanchuma (Metzora 1) - if one is intimate on the first day of Nidah, the child will be a Metzora for ten years; on the second day, twenty years? on the seventh day, seventy years. (Perhaps the punishment is greater, because he could have waited a short time until she will be permitted! - PF. We do not find Metzora'im among Chilonim, who have Bi'ah during Nidah! Based on Kabalah, the Midrash refers to a spiritual blemish in the child, proportionate to how many days of Nidah passed. - Heard from R. Meir Eliyahu.)
Seforno - Nega'im generally result when the [father's] Zera was not purified from the blood of Nidus (where they were intimate when she was a Nidah).
Be'Or Besaro" is translated as 'on the skin of his children' - and we find that one's children are called his Basar in the Pasuk in Bereishis "Vehayu le'Vasar Echad" (Refer to Bereishis 2:24:1:1) and "Al Titen es Picha Lachati es Besarecha" in Koheles 5:5, Rashi). (PF). See also Ba'al ha'Turim on Pasuk 9.
And Kohanim are called Mal'achim - as the Navi writes in Mal'achi, 2:7)."Sifsei Cohen? Mal'ach Hashem".
From what age is a person subject to Tzara'as?
Erchim, 3a: From the moment he is born, as implied by the word "Adam". 1
See Torah Temimah, note 1.
What is the definition of the words "Se'eis, Sapachas and Baheres"?
Rashi and Seforno: They are different categories of Nega'im, one whiter than the other. Refer to 13:2:3.1:1 & 13:2:3:2. 1
Rashbam (citing Shevu'os, 6b): "Sapachas" is a Toldah (a secondary appearance). "Se'eis" and "Baheres" are Avos (primary appearances), each of which has a secondary appearance which is called "Sapachas".
Hadar Zekenim: See answer #2. they are all Avos 2 (primary appearances).
Seforno - all of these have no connection with most forms of leprosy, which are blackish or reddish and not subject to Tum'ah. Rashi: "Baheres" means 'a mark' - as in Iyov, 36:21.
He does not disregard the Mishnah in Nega'im 1:1, which states that Se'eis and Baheres are two different Nega'im, only he says that according to P'shat, it would seem different.
Seeing as "Baheres" is the whitest of the Nega'im, why does the Torah mention it last?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because Hashem, the Ba'al ha'Rachamim, pushes it off till last. Moving min ha'Kal el Kaveid, He first inflicts Se'eis on a person, and only if he does not do Teshuvah, does he strike him with Baheres. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: In the same way as the Rambam explains how Hashem first sends Tzara'as on a person's house, then on his clothes and finally, on his body.
Why are "Se'eis, Sapachas and Baheres" so-called?
Rashbam 1 : "Se'eis", which means 'high', is so-called because it is not as white as Baheres, which appears deeper than it 2 on account of its brightness. 3
Nega'im 1:1: "Se'eis" (which means 'high' - as in Yeshayah, 2:14 - Shevu'os, 6b) is as white as white wool; "Sapachas" means 'secondary'; 4 and "Baheres" is as white as snow. 5
See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Se'eis', who states that Rashi in Shevu'os, 5b, also learns like the Rashbam.
Rashbam: 'Bahir' means bright, as in Iyov, 37:21.
Nega'im, 1:1: As in Sh'mu'el 1, 2:36. And the Torah places it in between Se'eis and Baheres to indicate that they both have a secondary Nega. Refer to 12:2:3.1
Nega'im 1:1: the whitest that there is, as implied in Pasuk 4 - Levanah Hi".
What is the 'Sapachas' of Baheres and of Se'eis"?
Nega'im 1:1: The Sapachas of Baheres is as white as the lime with which they marked the Heichal, and that of Se'eis is white like the membrane of an egg.
Seeing as the Torah is referring to "Se'eis, Sapachas and Baheres" why does it write "Vehayah" and not 'Vehayu'?
Sifra: To teach us that the various appearances of Tzara'as combine to make up the Shi'ur (which will be discussed later), whether it be to declare the Metzora Tahor, Tamei Muchlat or Tamei Musgar.
Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "be'Or Besaro"?
Sifra: To teach us that Tzara'as is applicable even on parts of the body where hair does not grow. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 11.
What are the implications of "be'Or Besaro" as opposed to "be'Or ha'Basar" or simply 'be'Oro'?
Sifra: It implies that the Kohen assesses the whiteness against the skin of the Metzora, inasmuch as a bright Baheres on the skin of an albino will appear pale, whereas a pale Baheres on the skin of an african appears very bright. 1
Oznayim la'Torah #1: It inserts the word "Besaro" to draw a distinction between Tzara'as on the location of Basar and that of the hair or the bear which it will discuss later.
Oznayim la'Torah #2: It inserts the word "Besaro" to warn the Metzora not to disillusion himself that the Nega is only skin deep and will soon go away, but that it a disease that has has affected his flesh to b e taken seriously. 2
Oznayim la'Torah #3: According to the opinion cited in the Tanchuma, that Tzara'as is a punishment for Z'nus (immorality), this is hinted in the word "Besaro", which represents Ta'avas Besarim.
See Torah Temimah, note 12 & 13.
Oznayim la'Torah: As the Torah writes in Beha'aloscha, Bamidbar, 12:12, in connection with Miri'am "Vaye'achel Chatzi Besaro".
Why does the Torah refer to Tzara'as as "Nega Tzara'as"?
Sifra: To teach us that the appearance of Tzara'as actually hurts the Metzora - and since the Torah ads a 'Lamed' ("le'Nega Tzara'as") that it is noticeable to others that the Metzora is in pain. 1
See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'vee'Hayah be'Or Besaro', who elaborates.
What does the Torah mean when it writes "ve'Huva el Aharon ha'Kohen ... "?
Seforno: 'He will be brought' (the Huf'al) indicates that the person comes to a place for something to be done to him, 1 as opposed to where he goes to do something, where the Torah writes 'he will come' (in the Kal). 2
Yerushalmi Nidah, 2:7: This teaches us that even a woman, who is permitted to send an appearance of blood to a Rav to ascertain whether she is Tamei Nidah or not, is obligated to appear in person before the Kohen to rule on appearances of Tzara'as. 3
See for example, Sh'mos 21:6 and Bamidbar 5:15 (Seforno).
Like we find in Devarim 25:1 and in Sh'mos 22:7-8 (Ibid.)
See Torah Temimah, note 16.
Why does the Torah add "O el Achad mi'Banav ha'Kohanim "?
Sifra: "El Achad" teaches us that a single Kohen may rule on Nega'im -and it does not require a Beis-Din of three; "mi'Banav" comes to incorporate a Ba'al-Mum, and "ha'Kohanim", to prelude a Chalal. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 18.
Why did Hashem require Kohanim to determine Tzara'as?
Seforno #1 (in Pasuk 5): It is a Gezeiras ha'Kasuv that the Tum'ah and Taharah of Nega'im are placed under the jurisdiction of the Kohen, 1 who will teach the Metzora to do Teshuvah on his sins and to pray, as well as praying on his behalf. 2
Seforno #2 (in Pasuk 5): Since the Kohanim were placed in charge of Nega'im, they would master the various appearances and be able to distinguish between one Nega and another.
Oznayim la'Torah: Since Tzara'as comes as a result of the seven sins listed in Erchin, 15a, a Metzora needs to be examined (not by a medical doctor, but) by a spiritual one, who will teach him how to do Teshuvah and be healed - a role that is fulfilled by the Kohanim, about whom the Torah writes in ve'Zos ha'Berachah, Devarim, 33:10 "Yoru Mishpatecha le'Ya'akov". 3
Irrespective of the fact that there are Talmidei-Chachamim more knowledgeable than him. Sifra: However, in the event that the Kohen was not conversant with the appearances of Tzara'as, a Talmid-Chacham would examine the 'Metzora' and tell the Kohen to declare 'Tahor' or 'Tamei' and the Kohen had merely to repeat it - in keeping with the Pasuk in Shoftim Devarim, 21:5 "ve'Al Pihem Yih'yeh Kol Riv ve'Chol Nega" - See Oznayim la'Torah, on Pasuk 3, who elaborates.
As the Pasuk indicates in Mal'achi, 2:7.
See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Vehuva el Aharon ha'Kohen', who elborates.
