1)

(a)We query Rava (who forbids Kasher meat that has been salted together with T'reifah meat) from the Beraisa which permits a Tahor fish that has been salted together with a Tamei one. What does the Kashya assume?

(b)How do we therefore establish the Beraisa to reconcile Rava with it?

(c)What would the Din be if the Tamei fish was salted and the Tahor one was not?

(d)How do we reconcile this interpretation of the Reisha of the Beraisa with the Seifa 'Hayah Tahor Mali'ach, ve'Tamei Tapal, Mutar' (which seems to merely repeat the Reisha)?

1)

(a)We query Rava (who forbids Kasher meat that has been salted together with T'reifah meat) from the Beraisa which permits a Tahor fish that has been salted together with a Tamei one. The Kashya assumes that - both fish were salted.

(b)To reconcile Rava with its ruling, we therefore establish the Beraisa - where only the Tahor fish was salted, but not the Tamei one.

(c)If the Tamei fish was salted and the Tahor one was not - then the latter would be Asur (as we will see shortly).

(d)According to this interpretation of the Reisha of the Beraisa, the Seifa 'Hayah Tahor Mali'ach, ve'Tamei Tapal, Mutar' (which seems to merely repeat the Reisha) - is in fact coming to explain the Reisha.

2)

(a)We try to prove that the Seifa must be coming to explain the Reisha, because otherwise it would be superfluous. Why is that?

(b)How do we refute this proof? Why might it be necessary to learn the Seifa, even if the Reisha is speaking where both fish were salted?

(c)What do we then try to extrapolate from the Seifa de'Seifa 'Aval im Hayah Tamei Malu'ach, ve'Tahor Tapal, Asur', posing a Kashya on Rava?

(d)How do we refute this Kashya? Why might the Tana have seen fit to learn the Seifa de'Seifa, even if Sheneihem Meluchim, Asur?

2)

(a)We try to prove that the Seifa must be coming to explain the Reisha, because otherwise it would be superfluous - since if the Tahor fish remains Kasher even when it too, was salted, how much more so if it was not!

(b)We refute this proof however - by suggesting that the Tana learned the Seifa to teach us that the Reisha is indeed speaking where both fish were salted.

(c)We then try to extrapolate from the Seifa de Seifa 'Aval im Hayah Tamei Malu'ach, ve'Tahor Tapal, Asur' that - if both fish were salted, the Tahor fish would be permitted (a Kashya on Rava).

(d)We refute this Kashya however - with the argument that the Tana may well have seen fit to learn the Seifa de'Seifa, even if Sheneihem Meluchim, Asur, to balance with the Reisha de'Seifa 'Tahor Mali'ach, ve'Tamei Tapal' (and not to teach us the inference).

3)

(a)What two conditions does Shmuel require for meat to become rid of all its blood?

(b)Rav Huna learns Mole'ach u'Madi'ach. What does the Beraisa say?

(c)How do we reconcile Rav Huna with the Beraisa? Under which circumstances does Rav Huna not require washing the meat before salting it?

(d)Rav Dimi from Neherda'a would salt the meat using rock-salt. In which Chumra did this result? What did he then need to do that he would not have had to had he used fine salt?

3)

(a)The two conditions that Shmuel requires for meat to become rid of all its blood are - a. a thorough salting and b. a thorough rinsing.

(b)Rav Huna learns Mole'ach u'Madi'ach. The Beraisa says - 'Madi'ach, Mo'le'ach u'Madi'ach.

(c)We reconcile Rav Huna with the Beraisa - by establishing him where the meat was already rinsed in the butchery.

(d)Rav Dimi from Neherda'a would salt the meat using rock-salt, as a result of which - he had to shake it off later. This would not have been necessary had he used fine salt, which melts and drains by itself.

4)

(a)What did Rav Mesharshaya say about the intestines?

(b)We restrict this to the Kark'sha (the rectum), the Me'aya and the Hadra de'Kanta (the small intestine that surrounds the entrails). What does the Me'aya incorporate?

(c)What, besides the heart, the liver and the lungs, does this preclude?

4)

(a)Rav Mesharshaya states that - the intestines do not contain blood, and do not therefore require salting.

(b)However, we restrict this to the Kark'sha (the rectum), the Me'aya - incorporating the Keivah (the maw), the Keres (the rumen) and the large intestines and the Hadra de'Kanta (the small intestine that surrounds the entrails).

(c)Besides the heart, the liver and the lungs, this precludes - the entrails themselves (all of which contain blood, and which therefore require salting).

5)

(a)In what sort of vessel does Shmuel require the salting to take place?

(b)Why did Rav Sheishes salt the limbs one by one?

(c)On what grounds do we prove this unnecessary?

(d)What was Rav Sheishes' mistake? Which principle did he forget?

5)

(a)Shmuel requires the salting to take place - in a vessel that contains holes (for the blood to drain, as we already learned).

(b)Rav Sheishes would salt the limbs one by one - to prevent the blood from one limb becoming absorbed in the other during the salting.

(c)We prove this unnecessary however - because if it was, then by the same token, we ought to suspect that the blood will drip from one part of a limb and become absorbed in the other (which would render the salting process futile).

(d)Rav Sheishes forgot the principle that - during the salting, whilst meat is busy exuding, it does not absorb.

6)

(a)What does Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Chiya mean when he says that someone who breaks the neck of an animal before it is dead makes the animal heavier?

(b)What are the ramifications of this statement (as Shmuel himself concludes)?

(c)Bearing in mind Shmuel's triple statement ('Machbid ... Gozel ... Mavli'a ... ') what She'eilah do we ask regarding the blood that is absorbed? What additional Isur might Shmuel mean to incorporate?

(d)What is the outcome of the She'eilah?

6)

(a)When Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Chiya says that someone who breaks the neck of an animal before it is dead makes the animal heavier, he means that - as a result of the additional pain, the animal is unable to heave the deep sigh that it normally does following the Shechitah, which draws the blood to the Beis ha'Shechitah, releasing it from the body. As a result, the blood is distributed to the other limbs in the body, making them all heavier.

(b)The ramifications of this statement (as Shmuel himself concludes) are that - by doing so, the Shochet steals from the purchasers.

(c)Bearing in mind Shmuel's triple statement ('Machbid ... Gozel ... Mavli'a ... ') we ask whether the Isur is confined to 'Bein Adam la'Chavero' (as the initial ruling suggests), or whether it incorporate the Isur Dam (since the excessive blood cannot be extracted through salting).

(d)The outcome of the She'eilah is Teiku (Tishbi Yetaretz Kushyos ve'Iba'yos).

7)

(a)Our Mishnah learns that someone who places Basar Of on the table together with cheese has not contravened a Lo Sa'aseh. Why is this not an intrinsic Chidush?

(b)Then what do we suggest the Tana is coming to teach us?

(c)Whose opinion is it coming to preclude?

(d)How do we refute that suggestion?

7)

(a)Our Mishnah learns that someone who places Basar Of on the table together with cheese has not contravened a La Sa'aseh. This is not an intrinsic Chidush - since even bringing Basar Beheimah on to the table with cheese is not an Isur Torah either.

(b)So we suggest that the Tana is coming to teach us - the inference, that someone who eats them together has transgressed a Lo Sa'aseh ...

(c)... to preclude the opinion of Rebbi Akiva - who learns that Basar Of together with cheese, is not d'Oraysa, (as we will see in the next Mishnah).

(d)We refute that suggestion however - by interpreting the Tana's words to mean that bringing Basar Of on the table together with cheese will not lead to a Lo Sa'aseh.

8)

(a)What distinction does our Mishnah draw between Basar Beheimah Tehorah with Chalav Beheimah Tehorah on the one hand, and Basar Beheimah Tehorah with Chalav Beheimah Teme'ah, or vice-versa, on the other?

(b)What does Rebbi Akiva say about Basar Chayah ve'Of?

(c)Bearing in mind the principle Chayah bi'Chelal Beheimah, how can Rebbi Akiva preclude Chayos from the Din of Basar ve'Chalav? From which Pasuk in Re'ei does he learn it?

(d)What does Rebbi Yossi ha'Gelili learn from the same Pasuk ...

1. ... "Lo Sochlu Kol Neveilah" ... "Lo Sevashel G'di ... " (from the fact that they appear in the same Pasuk)?

2. ... "ba'Chaleiv Imo"?

8)

(a)On the one hand, our Mishnah - forbids cooking Basar Beheimah Tehorah with Chalav Beheimah Tehorah or deriving benefit from it if one did; whilst on the other - it permits cooking and deriving benefit from Basar Beheimah Tehorah with Chalav Beheimah Teme'ah, or vice-versa.

(b)Rebbi Akiva rules that - Basar Chayah ve'Of together with cheese - are permitted min ha'Torah.

(c)In spite of the principle Chayah bi'Chelal Beheimah, Rebbi Akiva precludes Chayos from the Din of Basar be'Chalav - from the word "G'di" (in the Pasuk in Re'ei "Lo Sevashel G'di ba'Chaleiv Imo"), which precludes Chayos (since it would otherwise be superfluous).

(d)Rebbi Yossi ha'Gelili learns from the same Pasuk ...

1. ... "Lo Sochlu Kol Neveilah" ... "Lo Sevashel G'di ... " (from the fact that they appear in the same Pasuk) that - whatever is subject to Neveilah (including a Chayah) is forbidden to cook together with milk.

2. ... "ba'Chaleiv Imo" that - the La'av precludes Basar Of (which is also subject to Neveilah, but) whose mother does not have milk.

113b----------------------------------------113b

9)

(a)What does the Beraisa learn from the Pasuk ...

1. ... in Vayeishev (in connection with Yehudah and Tamar) "Vayishlach Yehudah es G'di ha'Izim"?

2. ... in Toldos (in connection with Ya'akov obtaining the B'rachos) "ve'es Oros Gedayei ha'Izim"?

(b)Which principle prevents us from learning a Binyan Av from the second Pasuk (or even from both Pesukim), that G'di always means specifically a kid-goat?

(c)From where will those who hold Melamdin learn it?

9)

(a)The Beraisa learns from the Pasuk ...

1. ... in Vayeishev (in connection with Yehudah and Tamar) "Vayishlach Yehudah es G'di ha'Izim" that - only there does "G'di" refer to a goat; elsewhere (such as in the Parshah of Basar be'Chalav) it refers to any Kasher animal.

2. ... in Toldos (in connection with Ya'akov obtaining the B'rachos) "ve'es Oros Gedayei ha'Izim" that - the previous Pasuk is not a Binyan Av (from which we would learn that everywhere else in the Torah as well 'G'di' means a kid-goat).

(b)Neither can we learn from the second Pasuk (or even from both Pesukim), that G'di always means specifically a kid-goat - because of the principle Sh'nei Kesuvim ha'Ba'im ke'Echad Ein Melamdin (When two Pesukim teach us the same thing, they are exceptions rather than the rule).

(c)Those who hold Melamdin learn - from the extra 'Hey' (in "Izim - ha'Izim") that is written by each one that it is only there that "G'di" means a kid-goat, but not anywhere else.

10)

(a)Shmuel Darshens six things from the word "G'di" (which appears a number of times in the same context). What does he mean when he says "G'di", 'Lerabos es ...

1. ... he'Cheilev'?

2. ... Lerabos es ha'Meisah'?

(b)Which third thing does he include in the Isur?

(c)Shmuel also precludes three things from "G'di". What does he preclude from the Isur of Basar be'Chalav, besides Dam (be'Chalav) and Shilya (be'Chalav)?

(d)And what does he preclude from "ba'Chaleiv Imo", besides the milk of a male animal and the milk of a Shechutah?

10)

(a)Shmuel Darshens six things from the word "G'di". When he says "G'di", 'Lerabos es ...

1. ... he'Cheilev', he means that - if one cooks the Cheilev of an animal together with milk, he transgresses the La'av of Basar be'Chalav, as well as that of Cheilev.

2. ... Lerabos es ha'Meisah', he means that - if one cooks a piece of meat from a Neveilah together with milk, he will transgress the La'av of Basar be'Chalav, as well as that of Neveilah.

(b)The third thing that he includes in the Isur is - Basar Sh'lil (the flesh of a fetus).

(c)Shmuel also precludes three things from "G'di" (which appears a number of times in the same context). Besides Dam (be'Chalav) and Shilya (be'Chalav), he also precludes - the flesh of a Beheimah Teme'ah from the Isur of Basar be'Chalav.

(d)And besides the milk of a male animal and the milk of a Shechutah, he also precludes from "ba'Chalev Imo" - the milk of a Beheimah Temei'ah'.

11)

(a)What is the problem with the fact that Shmuel Darshens six things from "G'di"?

(b)To begin with, we learn Cheilev and Meisah from the same Pasuk. How can one learn two D'rashos from one Pasuk?

(c)What principle does Shmuel learn from there at the same time?

(d)On what grounds do we reject the wording 'ka'Savar Shmuel Isur Chal al Isur'?

11)

(a)The problem with the fact that Shmuel Darshens six things from "G'di" is that - the word "G'di only appears three times (and not six).

(b)To begin with, we learn Cheilev and Meisah from the same Pasuk - because both are of the species of G'di, in which case we apply the principle Hei Minaihu Mafkas. (Which one should we preclude from the D'rashah? [so we include both]).

(c)At the same time, Shmuel learns from there the principle - Isur Chal al Isur (since we see that the Isur of Basar be'Chalav takes effect on the Isur of Cheilev and of Neveilah, which preceded it).

(d)We reject the wording 'ka'Savar Shmuel Isur Chal al Isur' - because if he were to hold of that (before the D'rashah of "G'di"), then he would not require a Pasuk for Cheilev and Meisah (like we will see later, regarding the opinion of Rebbi Akiva).

12)

(a)That still leaves us with five D'rashos from three words. What do we therefore comment on the D'rashah that precludes Dam and Shilya?

(b)How is "G'di" superfluous (that renders it eligible for a D'rashah)?

12)

(a)That still leaves us with five D'rashos from three words. So we comment on the D'rashah that precludes Dam and Shilya that - in reality, they do not require a Pasuk to preclude them, since they are not included in "G'di" in the first place.

(b)Bearing in mind that "G'di" incorporates all species of Kasher animals - the Torah could just as well have written "Lo Sevashel ba'Chaleiv Imo", implying that one should not cook any animal that has mother's milk, together with milk (rendering "G'di" superfluous), thereby rendering it eligible for a D'rashah.

13)

(a)What does Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Eliezer learn from the Pasuk in Emor (in connection with a Kohen eating Terumah when he is Tamei) "u'Meisu bo ki Yechaleluhu"?

(b)What is the difference between the Isur of a Tamei Kohen eating Terumah and a Tahor Kohen eating Tamei Terumah

(c)What problem does that create with Shmuel's previous D'rashah regarding Cheilev u'Meisah?

13)

(a)Shmuel in the name of Rebbi Eliezer learns from the Pasuk in Emor "u'Meisu bo ki Yechaleluhu" that - it is only if a Tamei Kohen eats Tahor Terumah (which he renders Tamei in the process) that he is Chayav Misah, but not if he eats Tamei Terumah (which is already desecrated before he eats it), because the Isur of a Tamei Kohen cannot take effect on Tamei Terumah ...

(b)... even though the former is an Isur La'av that is subject to Kareis, and the latter, only an Isur Asei.

(c)It seems from there that - Shmuel holds Ein Isur Chal al Isur, whereas according to what we just learned (regarding Cheilev u'Meisah), he holds Isur Chal al Isur.

14)

(a)One of two answers that we give is that really Shmuel holds Isur Chal al Isur, and the case of a Kohen is a Gezeiras ha'Kasuv. What is the other answer?

(b)A third answer suggests that Shmuel really holds Isur Chal al Isur across the board. Then how will we explain his interpretation of the Pasuk in Emor ("u'Meisu bo ki Yechaleluhu")?

(c)What is the significance of the Lashon 'Amar Shmuel Mishum Rebbi Eliezer' (as opposed to 'Amar Shmuel Amar Rebbi Eliezer'?

14)

(a)One of two answers that we give is that really Shmuel holds Isur Chal al Isur, and the case of a Kohen is a Gezeiras ha'Kasuv. The other answer is that - really he holds Ein Isur Chal al Isur', and our case (of Cheilev and Neveilah) is a Gezeiras ha'Kasuv.

(b)A third answer suggests that Shmuel really holds Isur Chal al Isur across the board - and the D'rashah of "u'Meisu bo ... " is not his personal opinion, but that of his Rebbe, Rebbi Eliezer.

(c)The Lashon 'Amar Shmuel Mishum Rebbi Eliezer' (as opposed to 'Amar Shmuel Amar Rebbi Eliezer') implies that - he heard it from a third party, which must be the case here, because Rebbi Eliezer, a Tana (a Talmid of Rabban Yochanan ben Zakai) lived at the time of the Churban, many years before Shmuel (who was an Amora).

15)

(a)Rav Achdevui bar Ami asked Rav whether someone who cooks meat in the milk of an animal that has not yet suckled its young is Chayav or not. Why might he not be Chayav?

(b)How did Rav resolve the She'eilah from Shmuel's statement, precluding the milk of a male from the Isur of Basar be'Chalav?

(c)On what basis does the Torah then differentiate between the two?

(d)How do we initially establish the Machlokes between Rebbi Ami and Rebbi Asi as to whether Cheilev is subject to the La'av of Basar be'Chalav or not?

15)

(a)Rav Achdevui bar Ami asked Rav whether someone who cooks meat in the milk of an animal that has not yet suckled its young is Chayav or not. He might not be Chayav - because "ba'Chaleiv Imo" may be taken literally to mean that the animal is actually a mother.

(b)Rav resolved the She'eilah from Shmuel's statement, precluding the milk of a male from the Isur of Basar be'Chalav - implying that the milk of a female, even if it is has not mothered a baby, is included ...

(c)... seeing as, unlike a male animal, it stands to become a mother one day.

(d)Initially, we connect the Machlokes between Rebbi Ami and Rebbi Asi as to whether Cheilev is subject to the La'av of Basar be'Chalav or not - with the question of whether we hold Isur Chal al Isur, or not (as we already saw in the Sugya of Shmuel).

16)

(a)However, we conclude that in reality, both opinions hold Ein Isur Chal al Isur. How do we then establish the opinion of the one who says Chayav? If he is not talking about eating Cheilev that has been cooked in milk, what is he talking about?

(b)What is then the basis of their Machlokes? On what grounds does one of them hold that there is no Malkos for cooking Cheilev together with milk?

(c)In the second explanation, everyone holds that one receives Malkos for cooking Cheilev in milk, and they argue over eating them together. If both opinions hold 'Ein Isur Chal al Isur', then what is the reason of the one who holds that there is Malkos for eating them?

(d)Alternatively, Rebbi Ami and Rebbi Asi are not even arguing. How will we then establish the two rulings?

16)

(a)However, we conclude that in reality, both opinions hold Ein Isur Chal al Isur. Nevertheless, one of them rules Chayav - because they are talking (not about eating Cheilev that has been cooked in milk, but) about cooking them together ...

(b)... and the reason of the one who holds that he is Patur from Malkos is - because the Torah deliberately presents the Isur of eating them together, using a Lashon of 'Bishul' ("Lo Sevashel G'di ... "), to teach us that whenever one is not Chayav for eating two items together, one is not Chayav for cooking them together either.

(c)In the second explanation, everyone holds that one receives Malkos for cooking Cheilev in milk, and they argue over eating them together. Both opinions hold Ein Isur Chal al Isur, and the one who holds that there is Malkos for eating them is - (based on the same logic as the previous answer, but in the reverse), that the Torah writes a Lashon of Bishul with regard to the Isur of eating, to teach us that whenever one is Chayav for cooking two items together, one is Chayav for eating them together, too.

(d)Alternatively, Rebbi Ami and Rebbi Asi are not even arguing - because the one who says Chayav is talking about cooking them together, whereas the one who says Patur, is talking about eating them together.

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