hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah add a 'Vav' in the word "Vay'hi <i>ha'Makriv ba'Yom ha'Rishon"?

1.

Rashbam: Following Vay'hi ha'Makriv ba'Yom ha'Rishon ... ", it is correct to continue "ve'Korbano ... ", with a 'Vav'.

2.

Da'as Zekeinim mi'Ba'alei Tosfos: To prevent Nachshon from becoming conceited, due to the fact that he was the first to bring his Korban.

2)

And why does it add "le'Mateh Yehudah"?

1.

Rashi: It is in order to be Meyaches him to his tribe. 1


1

Rashi: But not because he claimed the money for his Korbanos from the members of his tribe - since the paragraph ends with the words "Zeh Korban Nachshon ben Aminadav", indicating that he paid out of his own pocket.

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