hebrew
1)

What is the literal translation of "Lo Sirdeh bo be'Farech"?

1.

'Do not subjugate him with back-breaking work?

2)

And having already said "Lo Sa'avod bo Avodas Aved" (in Pasuk 39), why does it repeat does the Torah find it necessary to add it here?

1.

Rashi: The current Pasuk refers to making him perform unnecessary tasks in order to torment him. 1


1

Rashi: Such as asking him to boil up some water, to dig under a tree or to dig underneath the vine until he returns - all of which he does not need. Refer also to Shemos 1:13:1,2 & 3.

3)

Why does the Pasuk add the phrase "Veyareisa me'Elokecha"?

1.

Rashi: Because once again, nobody knows what is on his mind, whether the word is needed or not, other than Hashem.

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