1)

What does "Tzafenas Pa'ne'ach" mean?

1.

Rashi, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: It means 'the revealer of hidden things.' 1

2.

Ha'amek Davar: Pa'ne'ach is from "Pa" (Pei-Ayin), from the root Tofa'ah and honor, and "Nach" (Nun-Ches) (pleasant and delight of the soul). Normally, one who lived years in lowliness and suddenly was raised to greatness, would go crazy or die. Pharaoh was impressed that Yosef was unchanged. Also, one who is used to slavery and submissiveness does not know how to conduct authority suddenly - and Yosef went to wondrous authority! Pharaoh concluded that Yosef was never a slave or lowly; his potential is to be a leader, just it was not realized until now. Tzafenas Pa'ne'ach hints that was hidden in him the potential for authority and pleasantness.


1

See Ba'al ha'Turim. Although the Rashbam learns that it was an Egyptian name, according to the Ramban, Pharaoh called Yosef by a Kena'ani (Ivri) name in his honor - just like the daughter of Pharaoh would later call Moshe Rabeinu by a Hebrew name in his honor - See Ramban. Rashi, who comments that "Pa'ne'ach" has no sequel in Tanach, seems to concur with the latter explanation. Emes l'Yaakov points out that every Egyptian name has two of the three letters "Pei-Reish-Ayin" in that order.

2)

Why is the name "Tzafenas Pa'ne'ach" not mentioned again?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because Yosef, who was proud of his 'Jewish' heritage, 1 never called himself by it, only by his Jewish name 'Yosef.' 2


1

Oznayim la'Torah: See Bereishis 40:15.

2

See Oznayim la'Torah.

3)

Who was Asenas?

1.

Targum Yonasan, Da'as Zekenim and Hadar Zekenim (citing Pirkei d'R. Eliezer): She was the daughter of Dinah and Shechem. 1


1

Refer to 41:45:151:2.

4)

Why did Pharaoh change Yosef's name?

1.

Rashi (to Divrei Hayamim II 36:4) and Rashbam: Because it was customary for kings (and other dignitaries) to change the name 1 of the person that they appointed to take charge of their household. 2

2.

Perhaps we can also say that it was by Divine design, so that his brothers should not know the identity of the new viceroy. (EC)

3.

Malbim: It was lest people complain that they are under a slave. His new name means 'the revealer of hidden things,' i.e. the Ru'ach Elokim.


1

Rashi (loc. cit.): To make it clear that they retained jurisdiction over them, to the point that they could even change their name at will.

2

As we find by Moshe and Yehoshua (Bamidbar 13:16) and by Nevuchadnetzar and Daniel (Daniel 4:5).

5)

Is "Poti Fera" the same as Potifar?

1.

Rashi and Ramban: Originally, he was called Potifar. However, after purchasing the good-looking Yosef for immoral purposes, Hashem caused Potifar to become castrated; 1 so his name was changed to Poti Fera. 2

2.

Rashbam: Potifar and Poti Fera are two different people.


1

Refer to 39:1:2:2.

2

Like Periyah (which is the folding back of the skin after the Bris Milah). Moshav Zekenim (to 39:19) - Poti Fera hints to being Mefatem Parim (fattening cattle, to offer to idolatry) and Po'er (exposing his anus) to Ba'al Pe'or.

6)

What was "On"?

1.

Ramban: 'On' was probably the name of the idol that Poti Fera worshipped. 1

2.

Rashbam: It was the name of the town of which Poti Fera was the mayor. 2


1

Refer to 41:45:5:2.

2

Refer to 41:45:4:2, and to 41:45:5:1. Presumably, Rashi will concur with this explanation. (EC)

7)

Why did Pharaoh marry off Yosef, and why to Poti Fera's daughter?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: For three possible reasons; (a) Because now that Yosef had married his daughter, Poti Fera (i.e. Potifar) would publicly dispel the notion that Yosef was a slave - and therefore ineligible to rule. 1 (b) It would dismiss the rumors that Yosef committed adultery with Potifar's wife, because had they been true, he would never have taken him as a son-in-law. (c) Since foreign rulers are not generally popular among the people, Pharaoh made a point of marrying Yosef to a native Egyptian, so that he become known as an Egyptian - for the benefit of both Yosef and the people.

2.

Malbim: She was the Kohen Gadol's daughter; this would help people believe that he is Ish Elokim.


1

See Oznayim la'Torah.

8)

Why did Yosef, a king, marry a commoner's daughter?

1.

Da'as Zekenim #1, Hadar Zekenim #1: Initially, Yosef was Potifar's slave. He thought, if I will not do his will and marry his daughter, he will disgrace me and inform that I was his slave. Rather, I will marry her, and he will honor me.

2.

Da'as Zekenim #2, Hadar Zekenim #2: She was Dinah's daughter from Shechem. Yaakov put an amulet around her neck and threw her underneath a bush, and miraculously she was brought to Egypt. Potifar raised her in his house, therefore she was called his daughter, just like we find that Moshe is called Bisyah's daughter, for she raised him. 1 Girls came to see Yosef, and threw ornaments to him. Asenas threw her amulet. Yosef realized that she descends from Yaakov, and married her. 2


1

Radak (to Divrei Hayamim I 4:18, from Vayikra Rabah 1): Yered, Avigdor and Chever refer to Moshe. They are called Bnei Bisyah, for she raised him.

2

If so, why does it say that Pharaoh gave her to Yosef? Perhaps Pharaoh persuaded Potifar to agree to give her, even though this would imply that Yosef was innocent and his wife lied. (PF)

9)

Why does it say "va'Yetzei Yosef Al Eretz Mitzrayim"? It says before that Pharaoh put him over all of Egypt!

1.

Seforno: It means that he left Pharaoh's presence with authority over the whole of Egypt.

2.

Malbim: Before [his name was changed and he married Asenas], he had been worried lest people rebel against him.

3.

Ha'amek Davar: He went to see the parts of every city, district and its people, and to appoint overseers, big and small, as he deemed proper. 1


1

According to Malbim (to 41:46), we learn this from the next verse, "va'Yetzei... va'Ya'avor b'Chol Eretz Mitzrayim" (41:46).

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

10)

Rashi writes: "'Poti Fera' - So called became he spontaneously became impotent...." What is the derivation?

1.

Gur Aryeh: "Fera" is an expression of Peri'ah, meaning castration. "Poti Fera" is written as two words to bring out this meaning.

11)

Rashi writes: "He is [the same as] Potifar... he spontaneously became impotent, because he had [originally] purchased Yosef for male relations." But it seems from Rashi (to 39:19) that Potifar remained capable of relations with his wife?

1.

Gur Aryeh: Potifar remained capable of normal marital relations; he was rendered impotent only such that he no longer had a drive for male relations.

12)

Rashi writes that Poti Fera is Potifar. Why is he called "Kohen (the priest of) On" here? Earlier, he is called "Sar ha'Tabachim"!

1.

Rashi (Bereishis 47:22): Although the word "Kohen" usually means a priest, sometimes it means a great man or a chief. 1

2.

Ramban: Initially, Potifar was one of Pharaoh's chief officers. However, when he became castrated, he was so embarrassed that he resigned his post and became a priest 2 in a 'monastery,' as was customary among important dignitaries.


1

Rashbam As the Navi writes, "and the sons of David were 'Kohanim'" (Shmuel II 8:18) - and like "Kohen Midyan" (Shemos 2:16) - Rashi to 47:22. See also Ramban DH 've'ha'Emes.'

2

Ramban: Just like Yisro was called 'Kohen (the priest of) Midyan;' refer to 41:45:5:1*.

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