1)
(a)What does our Mishnah mean when it rules that the Kometz, the Ketores and the Levonah are not subject to Pigul?
(b)How will we reconcile this with the Beraisa that we just cited Bameh Devarim Amurim, bi'Kemitzah, be'Matan K'li u've'Hiluch?
1)
(a)When our Mishnah rules that the Kometz, the Ketores and the Levonah are not subject to Pigul it means that - someone who eats them after the Korban becomes Pigul is not Chayav Kareis ...
(b)... whereas the Beraisa that we just cited Bameh Devarim Amurim, bi'Kemitzah, be'Matan K'li u've'Hiluch - is speaking about making the Minchah Pigul (not the Kometz itself).
2)
(a)The Tana includes Minchas Kohanim and Minchas Kohen Mashi'ach in the list. What makes these two Menachos different than other Menachos?
(b)What does the Tana say about blood?
(c)Rebbi Meir includes Nesachim ha'Ba'in bi'Fenei Atzman in the list. What does this incorporate, in addition to Nesachim that are brought independently?
(d)On what grounds do the Chachamim extend this ruling to Nesachim that are brought together with one's Korban?
2)
(a)The Tana includes Minchas Kohanim and Minchas Kohen Mashi'ach in the list. These two Menachos are different than other Menachos - because, inasmuch as they are completely burned, they are not subject to Kemitzah, and do not therefore, have a Matir.
(b)The Tana - includes blood in the list.
(c)Rebbi Meir includes Nesachim ha'Ba'in bi'Fenei Atzman in the list. In addition to Nesachim that are brought independently, this also incorporates - Nesachim that belong to a Korban, but that one only brought on the following day.
(d)The Chachamim extend this ruling to Nesachim that were actually brought together with one's Korban - since the owner had the option of bringing them independently.
3)
(a)What is the direct connection between the Log Shemen shel Metzora (whose remains are eaten by the Kohanim) and the Asham Metzora?
(b)What does Rebbi Meir therefore say regarding it?
(c)On what grounds does Rebbi Shimon disagree?
(d)On what grounds does our Mishnah declare subject to Pigul ...
1. ... the Basar and the skin of the Olah?
2. ... an Olas ha'Of?
3. ... a Chatas ha'Of?
3)
(a)The direct connection between the Log Shemen shel Metzora (whose remains are eaten by the Kohanim) and the Asham Metzora is that - the Torah specifically requires it to be placed on the exact location where the blood of the Asham was placed before it.
(b)Rebbi Meir therefore rules that - provided it is brought on the same day as the Asham, the log Shemen is subject to Pigul, too (since the blood of the Asham is Matir it).
(c)Rebbi Shimon disagrees - because the Metzora could have brought it on the following day.
(d)Our Mishnah declares subject to Pigul ...
1. ... the Basar and the skin of the Olah - because the Zerikas ha'Dam is Matir the one to the Mizbe'ach and the other, to the Kohanim.
2. ... an Olas ha'Of - because the blood permits its Basar to the Mizbe'ach.
3. ... a Chatas ha'Of - because the blood permits its Basar to the Kohanim.
4)
(a)What is Matir the burning of the Parim and Se'irim ha'Nisrafim?
(b)What constitutes the Eimurim in this case?
(c)What are the ramifications of this statement?
(d)Where are the Parim ha'Nisrafin burned?
(e)What does Rebbi Shimon therefore say?
4)
(a)The Zerikas ha'Dam is Matir the burning of the Parim and Se'irim ha'Nisrafim
(b)The Eimurim in this case - comprise the entire body of the animal.
(c)Consequently - a Machshevah she'Lo bi'Zemano during the Zerikas ha'Dam, renders the bodies Pigul.
(d)The Parim ha'Nisrafin are burned - in their designated location outside Yerushalayim.
(e)Rebbi Shimon therefore rules that - they are not subject to Pigul (which, he says, is confined to Kodshim that are brought on the Mizbe'ach).
5)
(a)What does Ula say with regard to a Kometz Pigul which Kohanim bring on the Mizbe'ach?
(b)And when he gives the reason Im Acherim Meivi li'Yedei Pigul, Hu Atzmo Lo 'Kol-she'Kein, what did he really mean?
(c)Why can it not be understood literally?
(d)Why do we not need Ula to teach us ...
1. ... that someone who eats a Kometz Pigul is not Chayav Kareis?
2. ... Im Alu, Lo Yerdu?
5)
(a)Ula rules that - a Kometz Pigul which Kohanim bring on the Mizbe'ach is no longer Pigul (regarding itself).
(b)And when he gives the reason Im Acherim Meivi li'Yedei Pigul, Hu Atzmo Lo'Kol-she'Kein, what he really meant was that - if it causes others to become Pigul, it should certainly allow itself to go on the Mizbe'ach.
(c)It cannot be understood literally - since then he will be contradicting himself (by proving that it is no longer Pigul, from a statement that it is)!
(d)We do not need Ula to teach us ...
1. ... that someone who eats a Kometz Pigul is not Chayav Kareis - because we just learned in the previous Mishnah, that whatever does not have a Matir cannot become Pigul.
2. ... Im Alu, Lo Yerdu - because we know that too, from a Mishnah in the ninth Perek.
6)
(a)What is the problem in suggesting that perhaps Ula is coming to teach us Im Yardu, Ya'alu?
(b)Nevertheless, that is how we do establish Ula's Chidush. How do we reconcile it with ...
1. ... that Mishnah?
2. ... the fact that he has already taught this before with regard to the limb of a Pasul Korban?
(c)What does Rav Acha'i extrapolate from Ula's latest ruling with regard to half such a Kometz that was taken down from the Mizbe'ach, whilst the other half was left on the Mizbe'ach?
6)
(a)The problem in suggesting that perhaps Ula is coming to teach us Im Yardu, Ya'alu is that - the Mishnah there rules Im Alu, Yerdu.
(b)Nevertheless, that is how we do establish Ula's Chidush. And we reconcile it with ...
1. ... that Mishnah - by establishing Ula's Chidush where the fire on the Mizbe'ach already set fire to most of it (at which stage it becomes the bread of the Mizbe'ach).
2. ... the fact that he has already taught this before with regard to the limb of a Pasul Korban - by pointing out that the Din by a Kometz might have been different, because unlike a limb, which constitutes one piece, a Kometz is made of many individual particles of flour, and we might have thought that those particles that the fire has burned are considered the bread of the Mizbe'ach, but not the particles that have not.
(c)Rav Acha'i extrapolates from Ula's latest ruling that - in a case where half of such a Kometz was taken down from the Mizbe'ach, whilst the other half was left on the Mizbe'ach - the former half is returned to the Mizbe'ach.
43b----------------------------------------43b
7)
(a)What did Rebbi Yitzchak Amar Rebbi Yochanan say about Pigul, Nosar and Tamei that one brings on the Mizbe'ach?
(b)Why was Rav Chisda surprised when he heard that?
(c)He introduced his Kashya with the words 'Mari Dichi'. What does Mari Dichi mean?
(d)How did Rebbi Zeira answer Rav Chisda's Kashya?
7)
(a)Rebbi Yitzchak Amar Rebbi Yochanan stated that if a Kohen brings Pigul, Nosar or Tamei on the Mizbe'ach - the respective Isurim are removed and Im Yardu, Ya'alu.
(b)When Rav Chisda heard that, he expressed surprise that - the Mizbe'ach acts as a Mikvah Taharah.
(c)He introduced his Kashya with the words 'Mari Dichi' - Master of this statement.
(d)Rebbi Zeira answered Rav Chisda's Kashya - by establishing Rebbi Yochanan's ruling where the Mizbe'ach already set fire to most of the limb before it was taken down (as we learned on Amud 'Alef').
8)
(a)Rebbi Yitzchak bar Bisna queried Rebbi Yochanan from a Beraisa. What does the Tana learn from "ve'Tum'aso alav" (in connection with Kareis for someone who eats a Shelamim be'Tum'ah)?
(b)How does this pose a Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan's ruling?
(c)On what grounds do we object to Rava's answer, that the Beraisa is talking about removing the Tum'ah through Tevilah?
(d)Rav Papa establishes the Pasuk by Basar Shelamim. How does this answer the Kashya?
8)
(a)Rebbi Yitzchak bar Bisna queried Rebbi Yochanan from a Beraisa. The Tana learns from "ve'Tum'aso alav" (in connection with Kareis for someone who eats a Shelamim be'Tum'ah) that - the Torah is referring to a Tum'ah that can be removed (Tum'as ha'Guf).
(b)The Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan's ruling is that - according to him, Tum'as Basar too, can be removed, by placing the Tamei Kodshim on the Mizbe'ach.
(c)We object to Rava's answer that the Beraisa is talking about removing the Tum'ah through Tevilah - on the grounds that the Torah has made no mention of Mikvah (and "ve'Tum'aso alav", precludes Kodshim whose Tum'ah can be removed by any means whatsoever).
(d)Rav Papa establishes the Pasuk by Basar Shelamim - which is eaten by the owner, and does not go on the Mizbe'ach anyway.
9)
(a)Ravina extends the D'rashah from "ve'Tum'aso alav" even to the Emurim. What makes him say that?
(b)How does he nevertheless Darshen the Pasuk to answer the Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan?
9)
(a)Ravina extends the D'rashah from "ve'Tum'aso alav" even to the Emurim - which he does because the Pasuk writes there "asher la'Hashem" (incorporating the Emurim).
(b)He nevertheless Darshens the Pasuk to answer the Kashya on Rebbi Yochanan - by explaining "alav" to mean whose Tum'ah can be removed whilst it is whole (whereas the Mizbe'ach only removes the Tum'ah from pieces of Kodshim (the Emurim)
10)
(a)The Beraisa actually discusses the current Pasuk in detail. On what grounds does the Tana initially assume that the Pasuk is speaking about Tum'as ha'Guf (and not Tum'as Basar)?
(b)In that case, why does the continuation of the Pasuk "ve'ha'Nefesh asher Tochal Basar" cause him to have doubts and suggest that maybe it is talking about Tum'as Basar after all?
(c)How does the Pasuk in Chukas (in connection with Tum'as Mikdash) "Od Tum'aso bo" settle the issue, according to the Tana Kama?
(d)How does Rebbi Yossi learn it from the Lashon "ve'Tum'aso alav"? What ought the Pasuk to have written had it been talking about the Kodshim?
10)
(a)The Beraisa actually discusses the current Pasuk in detail. The Tana initially assumes that the Pasuk is talking about Tum'as ha'Guf - because it has just said "Kol Tahor Yochal Basar", with reference to the person.
(b)Nevertheless, the continuation of the Pasuk "ve'ha'Nefesh asher Tochal Basar" causes him to have doubts and suggest that maybe it is talking about Tum'as Basar after all - because seeing as the Torah refers to the person as "Nefesh" (which is feminine), it ought to have written "ve'Tum'asah alehah" (if it had been referring to the person).
(c)The Pasuk (in connection with Tum'as Mikdash) "Od Tum'aso bo" settles the issue, according to the Tana Kama - because he now learns a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Tum'aso" "Tum'aso" from there.
(d)Rebbi Yossi learns it from the Lashon "ve'Tum'aso alav" - in the singular. Had the Pasuk been talking about Tum'as Basar (Kodshim), it ought to have written 've'Tum'asam aleihem'.
11)
(a)Acherim learns Tum'as ha'Guf from the Lashon "ve'Tum'aso alav", which implies that the Tum'ah can be removed (as we explained earlier). Rebbi learns it from "ve'Achal mi'Besar Zevach ha'Shelamim". What is the problem with Rebbi's D'rashah?
(b)Without Rav Yitzchak bar Avudimi's interpretation of the Pasuk, said Rava, we would not understand the Beraisa. How did Rav Yitzchak bar Avudimi learn the construction of the first Pasuk from the second one?
(c)Rava adds that, by the same token, we would not know how to explain the Beraisa without Zeiri's interpretation. The Beraisa explains why we need to learn both Kalos and Chamuros. In which connection is the Beraisa speaking?
(d)What would we have thought, according to the Tana, had the Pasuk written only ...
1. ... Kalos and not Chamuros?
2. ... Chamuros and not Kalos?
11)
(a)Acherim learn Tum'as ha'Guf from the Lashon "ve'Tum'aso Alav", which implies that the Tum'ah can be removed (as we explained earlier). Rebbi learns it from "ve'Achal mi'Besar Zevach ha'Shelamim". The problem with this is that - the quote refers to the next Pasuk, which does not seem to be connected to the current one.
(b)Rava therefore stated that we would not understand the Beraisa without Rav Yitzchak bar Avudimi's interpretation of the Pasuk. Rav Yitzchak bar Avudimi learns the construction of the first Pasuk from the second one - since like it, it opens and closes in the feminine ("ve'ha'Nefesh", ve'Nichresah ha'Nefesh ha'Hi") though "ve'Tum'aso alav" in the middle, is masculine. Consequently, like the second Pasuk, which refers to Tum'as ha'Guf (as we explained), it too, refers to Tum'as ha'Guf.
(c)Rava adds that, by the same token, we would not know how to explain the Beraisa without Zeiri's interpretation. The Beraisa explains why we need to learn both Kalos and Chamuros - in connection with Achilas Kodshim be'Tum'as ha'Guf.
(d)We would have thought, according to the Tana, that had the Pasuk written only ...
1. ... Kalos and not Chamuros that - the Kalos are Chayav only a La'av, whereas the Chamuros are Chayav Misah (bi'Yedei Shamayim).
2. ... Chamuros and not Kalos that - one is only Chayav for the Chamuros, but Patur from the Kalos.
12)
(a)Kalos cannot refer to Ma'aser (Sheini) and Chamuros to Terumah, because of the first statement. One of the two problems we would then have in saying that had the Torah not written Chamuros, we would have thought that they are Chayav Misah is that they are indeed Chayav Misah. What is the other?
(b)The Pasuk by Ma'aser is "Ki-im Rachatz Besaro ba'Mayim", and the Pasuk "U'va ha'Shemesh Vetaher". Misah and La'av aside, what major difference between Terumah and Ma'aser do we learn from this Pasuk?
(c)Neither can Kalos refer to Tum'as Sheretz, and Chamuros to Tum'as Meis (assuming we are talking about them eating Terumah). Why not?
(d)And assuming that we are talking about them eating Ma'aser, what is the problem with saying that had the Torah not written Chamuros, we would have thought that he is Chayav Misah?
12)
(a)Kalos cannot refer to Ma'aser (Sheini) and Chamuros to Terumah, because of the first statement. Saying that had the Torah not written Chamuros, we would have thought that they are Chayav Misah creates two problems; 1. that they are indeed Chayav Misah. The other - 2. How we could possibly learn a Chiyuv Misah by Terumah from the La'av of Ma'aser. In view of the principle Dayo La'vo min ha'Din Lih'yos ke'Nadun' he should transgress no more than a plain La'av (like Ma'aser).
(b)The Pasuk by Ma'aser is "Ki-im Rachatz Besaro ba'Mayim ... ve'Lo Yochal min ha'Kodshim", and the Pasuk by Terumah "U'va ha'Shemesh Ve'taher ... ve'Achar Yochal min ha'Kodshim ... u'Meisu Bo". Misah and La'av aside, the major difference between Terumah and Ma'aser that we learn from this Pasuk is that - a Tamei may eat Ma'aser immediately after having Toveled, but Terumah only after nightfall (Note, that Ma'aser throughout the Sugya means Ma'aser Sheini; Ma'aser Rishon is pure Chulin).
(c)Neither can Kalos refer to Tum'as Sheretz, and Chamuros to Tum'as Meis (assuming we are talking about them eating Terumah) - because once again, both are in fact, Chayav Misah.
(d)And assuming that we are talking about them eating Ma'aser, the problem with saying that had the Torah not written Chamuros, we would have thought that he is Chayav Misah is that - we would then be learning Misah by Tum'as Meis from a La'av by Tum'as Sheretz, and again we ought to apply the principle Dayo ... .
13)
(a)How does Zeiri finally explain Kalos and Chamuros?
(b)Assuming that the Tana means that had the Torah written Tum'as Sheretz both by Terumah and by Ma'aser, but not mentioned Tum'as Meis, what does he now mean when he says 'Im Ne'emar Kalos ve'Lo Ne'emar Chamuros Hayisi Omer al ha'Kalos be'La'av, ve'al ha'Chamuros be'Misah'? What would we have said with regard to ...
1. ... a Tamei Sheretz eating Ma'aser?
2. ... a Tamei Sheretz eating Terumah?
3. ... a Tamei Meis eating Ma'aser?
(c)Now that the Torah does write Tum'as Meis, what is the Halachah regarding the latter case? In which regard does the Torah write it?
13)
(a)Zeiri finally explains Kalos and Chamuros to mean - Tum'as Sheretz and Tum'as Meis after all (as we just suggested).
(b)Assuming that the Tana means that had the Torah written Tum'as Sheretz both by Terumah and by Ma'aser, but not mentioned Tum'as Meis, when he says 'Im Ne'emar Kalos ve'Lo Ne'emar Chamuros Hayisi Omer al ha'Kalos be'La'av, ve'al ha'Chamuros be'Misah', he means that ...
1. ... a Tamei Sheretz who eats Ma'aser - would transgress a La'av.
2. ... a Tamei Sheretz who eats Terumah (Kalos al Chamuros) - would be Chayav Misah.
3. ... a Tamei Meis who eats Ma'aser (Chamuros al Kalos) - would be Chayav Misah too.
(c)Now that the Torah does write Tum'as Meis with regard to Ma'aser - the latter only transgresses a La'av (as we learned earlier).