1)
(a)On what grounds does Rava from Barnish refute the Tzad ha'Shaveh from Olah and Minchas Chotei to validate an Asham whose blood entered the Kodesh?
(b)How does he then learn that an Asham is Kasher from the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the P'sul of a Chatas whose blood entered the Kodesh) "asher Yuva mi'Damah"?
(c)Rebbi Eliezer learns "Damah", 've'Lo Besarah'. From where do the Rabbanan learn this?
(d)What does Rebbi Eliezer learn from "Dam" "Damah"?
1)
(a)Rava from Barnish refutes the Tzad ha'Shaveh from Olah and Minchas Chotei to validate an Asham whose blood entered the Kodesh - on the grounds that they have no fixed price-tag, like the Asham does (like we asked above).
(b)And he learns that an Asham is Kasher from the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the P'sul of a Chatas whose blood entered the Kodesh) "asher Yuva mi'Damah" - 'Damah shel Zu (of a Chatas), ve'Lo Damah shel Acher' (of an Asham).
(c)Rebbi Eliezer learns "Damah", 've'Lo Besarah'. The Rabbanan learn this from - "Dam" "Damah" (implying two Miy'utin).
(d)Rebbi Eliezer does not learn anything from "Dam" "Damah" - because, since the Torah had to write "Dam", it is only natural to add the 'Hey' and to write "Damah".
2)
(a)How do the Rabbanan explain the Pasuk in Tzav (in connection with the Minchah) "Kodesh Kodashim hi, ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham". When does the Torah compare a Minchah to a Chatas, and when does it compare it to an Asham?
(b)How does this create a problem with Rebbi Eliezer?
(c)To explain the Pasuk according to Rebbi Eliezer, we establish him like Rebbi Shimon. In a case where the Kohen took the Kometz to the Mizbe'ach in his hand, without a K'li Shareis, the Tana Kama in the Mishnah in Menachos invalidates the Korban. What does Rebbi Shimon say?
2)
(a)The Rabbanan explain the Pasuk in Tzav "Kodesh Kodashim hi, ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham" to mean - that a Minchas Chotei is like a Chatas (and is Pasul, if the Kemitzah was made she'Lo li'Shemo), whereas a Minchas Nedavah is like an Asham (and is Kasher), like Rebbi Shimon.
(b)The problem with Rebbi Eliezer (who does not differentiate between a Chatas and an Asham in this regard) is - how he will explain the Pasuk "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham".
(c)So we establish him like (another ruling of) Rebbi Shimon. In a case where the Kohen took the Kometz to the Mizbe'ach in his hand without a K'li Shareis, the Tana Kama in the Mishnah in Menachos invalidates the Korban - Rebbi Shimon rules that it is Kasher.
3)
(a)Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya bases Rebbi Shimon's opinion on "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham". How does he explain it? What two options does the Kohen have in carrying the Minchah?
(b)What do we learn from the words "ha'Kohen" and "be'Etzba'o" (in the Pasuk "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o")?
(c)By Asham too, the Torah writes Kehunah. Why does Rebbi Shimon nevertheless permit using the left hand?
(d)What do the Chachamim say?
3)
(a)Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya bases Rebbi Shimon's opinion on "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham". He explains that - the Kohen has the option of either carrying the Minchah in his right hand (like a Chatas), or in a K'li Shareis (held even in his left hand), like an Asham.
(b)We learn from the words "ha'Kohen" and "be'Etzba'o" (in the Pasuk "Ve'lakach ha'Kohen mi'Dam ha'Chatas be'Etzba'o") that - a Chatas must be carried in the Kohen's right hand.
(c)By Asham too, the Torah writes Kehunah, yet Rebbi Shimon permits the Kohen to use his left hand - because it does not write 'Etzba' (and Rebbi Shimon requires both).
(d)The Chachamim, who learn from either "Etzba" or "Kehunah" - require the Kohen to use his right hand by the Avodos of the Asham as well.
4)
(a)We conclude that Rebbi Shimon explains the Pasuk ("Kodesh Kodashim Hi ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham") like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya explained. From where does he then learn that a Minchas Chotei is Pasul she'Lo li'Shemah?
(b)According to the Rabbanan in our Mishnah (who validate an Asham that is brought she'Lo li'Shemo), why does the Torah write "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham"?
4)
(a)We conclude that Rebbi Shimon explains the Pasuk ("Kodesh Kodashim Hi ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham") like Rav Yehudah b'rei de'Rebbi Chiya. And he learns that a Minchas Chotei is Pasul she'Lo li'Shemah - from the word "Hi" (in the same way as we learn the P'sul by Chatas from the word "Hi" there).
(b)According to the Rabbanan in our Mishnah (who validate an Asham that is brought she'Lo li'Shemo), the Torah writes "ka'Chatas ve'cha'Asham" - to teach us that an Asham requires Semichah like a Chatas.
5)
(a)According to Rebbi Yochanan, Yosef ben Choni (in our Mishnah) and Rebbi Eliezer (in a Beraisa) say one and the same thing. What is that?
(b)In which of the two cases does Rabah maintain that Rebbi Eliezer agrees with Yosef ben Choni and in which case does he disagree with him?
(c)Rebbi Eliezer renders Pasul a Pesach in its second year or other Korbanos that one Shechted on the fourteenth as a Pesach. What does Rebbi Yehoshua say?
(d)What Kal-va'Chomer does Rebbi Yehoshua learn, based on other Korbanos that are Kasher, even if one Shechts them during the year as a Pesach?
5)
(a)According to Rebbi Yochanan, Yosef ben Choni (in our Mishnah) and Rebbi Eliezer (in a Beraisa) say one and the same thing - that if one Shechts another Korban as a Pesach or a Chatas, it is Pasul.
(b)Rabah maintains that Rebbi Eliezer agrees with Yosef ben Choni - by Pesach, but disagrees with him by Chatas.
(c)Rebbi Eliezer renders Pasul a Pesach in its second year or other Korbanos that one Shechted on the fourteenth as a Pesach. Rebbi Yehoshua - declares them both Kasher.
(d)Rebbi Yehoshua learns that - if other Korbanos that one Shechts during the year as a Pesach are Kasher, even though a Pesach is not (Kasher as a Pesach), if one Shechts them on the fourteenth, when a Pesach is Kasher, they should certainly be Kasher.
6)
(a)Rebbi Eliezer counters Rebbi Yehoshua with the reverse Kal-va'Chomer. What does he learn from the fact that a Pesach during the year, which is not Kasher as a Pesach, is Kasher as a Shelamim?
(b)Why is this Kal va'Chomer unacceptable?
(c)What does Rebbi Eliezer set out to prove with this (false) Kal va'Chomer?
(d)And what Pircha does Rebbi Eliezer ask on Rebbi Yehoshua's Kal va'Chomer? Why is Acherim le'Shem Pesach on the fourteenth worse than a Pesach le'Shem Acherim during the year?
6)
(a)Rebbi Eliezer counters Rebbi Yehoshua with the reverse Kal-va'Chomer. He learns that - if a Pesach during the year is Kasher as a Shelamim, even though it is not Kasher as a Pesach, then on the fourteenth, when it is Kasher as a Pesach, it should certainly be Kasher as a Shelamim.
(b)This Kal va'Chomer is unacceptable however - since it negates the Mishnah, which disqualifies a Pesach she'Lo li'Shemo.
(c)Rebbi Eliezer sets out to prove with this (false) 'Kal va'Chomer' that - these Halachos are not subject to Kal-va'Chomers.
(d)Rebbi Eliezer also queries Rebbi Yehoshua's Kal va'Chomer by pointing out that Acherim le'Shem Pesach on the fourteenth is worse than a Pesach le'Shem Acherim during the year - because on the fourteenth, a Pesach le'Shem Acherim is Pasul (reason enough to render Pasul Acherim le'Shem Pesach).
7)
(a)What does Rebbi Yochanan now prove from here?
(b)How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter Rebbi Eliezer's second Kashya?
(c)So Rebbi Eliezer tries another angle. What does he try to prove from the fact that a Pesach, whose Mosar (leftovers) are brought as a Shelamim, is Pasul, if he brings it on the fourteenth as a Shelamim?
(d)How does Rebbi Yehoshua counter that with a similar Limud from a Chatas, whose Moser is brought as an Olah, yet it is Pasul if it is brought as an Olah?
7)
(a)Rebbi Yochanan proves from here that - Rebbi Eliezer renders another Korban le'Shem Chatas Pasul (just like le'Shem Pesach), since he gives the reason for the P'sul as the fact that a Pesach le'Shem Acherim is Pasul, a reason that applies equally to another Korban le'Shem Chatas.
(b)Rebbi Yehoshua counters Rebbi Eliezer's second Kashya - in that according to him (Rebbi Eliezer), it now transpires that she'Lo li'Shemo of a Shelamim (on the fourteenth) will be stronger than she'Lo li'Shemo by Pesach (during the year [which goes against what we have learned that a Pesach she'Lo li'Shemo is stronger]).
(c)So Rebbi Eliezer tries another angle. He tries to prove from the fact that a Pesach, whose Mosar (leftovers) are brought as a Shelamim, is Pasul if he brings it on the fourteenth as a Shelamim that - a Shelamim (whose Mosar is not brought as a Pesach) should become Pasul, if one brings it as a Pesach on the fourteenth.
(d)Rebbi Yehoshua counters that with a similar Limud from a Chatas, whose Moser is brought as an Olah - yet it is Pasul if it is brought as an Olah, whereas an Olah is not Pasul if it is brought as a Chatas, even though its Mosar is not brought as a Chatas.
8)
(a)How does Rebbi Eliezer counter Rebbi Yehoshua's counter-proof?
(b)What might Rebbi Eliezer have answered?
(c)What does Rabah prove from the fact that he didn't?
8)
(a)Rebbi Eliezer counters Rebbi Yehoshua's counter-proof - by pointing out that a Chatas (unlike a Pesach) is Kasher all the year round (which is why an Olah that was Shechted le'Shem Chatas is Kasher).
(b)Rebbi Eliezer might have answered - that, in his opinion, an Olah le'Shem Chatas is Pasul too.
(c)Rabah proves from the fact that he didn't that - he only agrees with Yosef ben Choni by Pesach, but not by Chatas.
11b----------------------------------------11b
9)
(a)According to Rav Ashi and Rav Acha b'rei de'Rava in the name Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Yanai respectively, what does Shimon Achi Azaryah learn from the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Lo Yechalelu es Kodshei b'nei Yisrael es asher Yarimu la'Hashem"?
(b)How does Shmuel learn from the same Pasuk that someone who eats Tevel is Chayav Misah?
(c)Seeing as Misah is not mentioned in this Pasuk, how does Shmuel know that one is Chayav Misah too?
(d)In view of Shimon Achi Azaryah's D'rashah, how can Shmuel learn his own D'rashah from there?
9)
(a)According to Rav Ashi and Rav Acha b'rei de'Rava in the name of Rebbi Yochanan and Rebbi Yanai respectively, Shimon Achi Azaryah learns from the Pasuk in Emor "ve'Lo Yechal'lu es Kodshei b'nei Yisrael es asher Yarimu la'Hashem" that - one does not invalidate a Korban by having in mind a higher Kedushah (but that if one has in mind in inferior Kedushah, the Korban is Pasul).
(b)Shmuel learns from the same Pasuk that someone who eats Tevel is Chayav Misah - because "es asher Yarimu la'Hashem" is written in the future tense, a warning not to desecrate Tevel (which stands to have the Terumah removed from it).
(c)Despite the fact that Misah is not mentioned in this Pasuk, Shmuel knows that one is Chayav Misah - from a 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Chilul" "Chilul" from Terumah (where the Torah writes "u'Meisu bo ki Yechaleluhu").
(d)In spite of Shimon Achi Azaryah's D'rashah, Shmuel learns his D'rashah from there, because the Torah could have written "es asher Hurmu" (in the past). "Yarimu" in the future implies a second D'rashah, as we explained.
10)
(a)Shimon Achi Azaryah says that Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim, Kesheirim. Rebbi Zeira is not sure what he means by Kesheirim. What are the two possible explanations?
(b)And what does Rebbi Zeira mean when he says that if Shimon Achi Azaryah means 'Kesheirim u'Meratzin', then he argues with the Tana Kama in two points? Which two points?
10)
(a)Shimon Achi Azaryah says Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim, Kesheirim. Rebbi Zeira is not sure what he means by Kesheirim - since it can mean either Kesheirim u'Meratzin (that the owner is also Yotzei), or Kesheirim ve'Ein Meraztin.
(b)When Rebbi Zeira says that if Shimon Achi Azaryah means Kesheirim u'Meratzin, then he argues with the Tana Kama in two points - he is referring to a. Kodshei Kodshim le'Shem Kodshim Kalim, Pesulim (whereas the Tana Kama holds Kesheirim [apart from a Chatas]), and b. Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim Kesheirim u'Meratzin (whereas the Tana Kama holds ve'Lo Alu le'Ba'alim le'Shem Chovah).
11)
(a)How does Abaye attempt to resolve Rebbi Zeira's quandary from the Seifa of our Mishnah B'chor u'Ma'aser she'Shachtan le'Shem Shelamim, Kesheirim?
(b)How do we refute this proof? What does Ha ke'de'Isa ve'Ha ke'de'Isa mean?
(c)If the Seifa does not come to reflect on the Reisha, having already learned Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim ... , what is then the Seifa coming to teach us?
(d)But don't we know that too, from the Mishnah in 'Kol ha'Tadir' Shelamim Kodmin es ha'Bechor Mipnei she'hein Te'unin Matan Arba ...?
11)
(a)Abaye attempts to resolve Rebbi Zeira's quandary from the Seifa of our Mishnah B'chor u'Ma'aser she'Shachtan le'Shem Shelamim, Kesheirim - which definitely means Kesheirim ve'Ein Meratzin (since Ritzuy is not applicable there, seeing as the owner is not required to replace them in any case). In that case, he claims, the Reisha also means Kesheirim ve'Ein Meratzin.
(b)We refute this proof however with Ha ke'de'Isa ve'Ha ke'de'Isa - even if Kesheirim in the Seifa means Kesheirim ve'Ein Meratzin, in the Reisha it may well mean Kesheirim u'Meratz'in.
(c)If the Seifa does not come to reflect on the Reisha), having already learned Kodshim Kalim le'Shem Kodshei Kodshim ... , the Seifa is coming to teach us that - the difference between 'Gavohah' and 'Namuch' applies even where both Korbanos are Kodshim Kalim.
(d)Granted, we know that too from the Mishnah in 'Kol ha'Tadir' Shelamim Kodmin es ha'Bechor Mipnei she'hein Te'unin Matan Arba ... . However - the main Chidush regarding the P'sul of she'Lo li'Shemo is here, and the Tana only mentions it there, because it fits into the Sugya of Kol ha'Tadir me'Chavero.
12)
(a)Rebbi Yehoshua declares a Pesach that is Shechted on the morning of the fourteenth she'Lo li'Shemo, Kasher. Why is that?
(b)What does ben Beseira say?
(c)Shimon ben Azai quoting the Sanhedrin, rules that Kol ha'Zevachim ha'Ne'echalin she'Nizb'chu she'Lo li'Sheman Kesheirim. What does he mean to preclude when he says ha'Ne'echalin?
(d)Which Sanhedrin is he quoting?
12)
(a)Rebbi Yehoshua declares a Pesach that is Shechted on the morning of the fourteenth she'Lo li'Shemo, Kasher - because it is no different than on any other day of the year (when a Pesach she'Lo li'Shemo is Kasher).
(b)ben Beseira says that - it is Pasul as if it was Shechted in the afternoon.
(c)Shimon ben Azai quoting the Sanhedrin, rules that Kol ha'Zevachim ha'Ne'echalin she'Nizb'chu she'Lo li'Sheman Kesheirim. When he says ha'Ne'echalin he means to preclude - an Olah, which he equates with a Pesach and Chatas in this regard.
(d)He is quoting - the Sanhedrin ha'Gadol that convened on the day that Rebbi Elazar ben Azaryah was appointed Nasi.
13)
(a)According to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshayah, ben Beseira is Machshir the whole of the fourteenth for the Korban Pesach (which explains why he declares she'Lo li'Shemo, Pasul). Why is that?
(b)Then why did ben Beseira say 'Ke'ilu Nishchat Bein ha'Arbayim' (seeing as it is Bein ha'Arbayim)?
(c)Why did ben Beseira and Rebbi Yehoshua then not argue whether a Pesach li'Shemo is Kasher in the morning (ben Beseira) or not (Rebbi Yehoshua)?
(d)How does Ula b'rei de'Rav Ila'i explain "Bein ha'Arbayim" (in Pashas Bo), according to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshaya?
13)
(a)According to Rebbi Elazar Amar Rebbi Oshayah, ben Beseira is Machshir the whole of the fourteenth for the Korban Pesach (which explains why he declares she'Lo li'Shemo, Pasul) - because he considers it all to be included in the period of "Bein ha'Arbayim", as we will see shortly.
(b)Nevertheless, ben Beseira said 'Ke'ilu Nishchat Bein ha'Arbayim' - because he was echoing Rebbi Yehoshua, who used the same expression.
(c)The reason that ben Beseira and Rebbi Yehoshua did not argue whether a Pesach li'Shemo is Kasher in the morning (ben Beseira) or not (Rebbi Yehoshua) is - because we would have then assumed that Rebbi Yehoshua will concede that she'Lo li'Shemo is Pasul, seeing as the Korban is Kasher for part of the day.
(d)Ula b'rei de'Rav Ila'i explains "Bein ha'Arbayim" (in Pashas Bo) to mean - between the end of one Erev (that of the fourteenth) and the beginning of the next (the onset of night of the fifteenth).
14)
(a)By the same token, why do we not then permit the Korban Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim to be brought in the morning?
(b)Why do we then need to Darshen from the words "ha'Echad" and "ba'Boker" (in the Pasuk in Tetzaveh "es ha'Keves ha'Echad Ta'aseh ba'Boker", 'Echad ve'Lo Shenayim')?
(c)How do we then know that the Kohen cannot kindle the Menorah any time during the day, since the Torah writes there too, "Bein ha'Arbayim"?
(d)Alternatively, we learn from "me'Erev ad Boker 'Ein l'cha Avodah Kesheirah me'Erev ad Boker Ela Zu Bil'vad'. What do we mean by that?
(e)And from where do we know that the second offering of Ketores, which is written in the same Pasuk as the Menorah in Tetzaveh, cannot be brought all day?
14)
(a)We do not, by the same token, permit the Korban Tamid shel Bein ha'Arbayim to be brought in the morning - because the Torah writes there "es ha'Keves ha'Echad Ta'aseh ba'Boker, ve'es ha'Keves ha'Sheini Ta'aseh Bein ha'Arbayim".
(b)We nevertheless need to Darshen from the words "ha'Echad" and "ba'Boker" (in the Pasuk in Tetzaveh "es ha'Keves ha'Echad Ta'aseh ba'Boker", 'Echad ve'Lo Shenayim') - to preclude the suggestion that one of the Temidin must be brought in the morning, whilst the other can be brought at any time during the day (even in the morning).
(c)Despite the fact that the Torah writes by the Menorah too, "Bein ha'Arbayim", we know that the Kohen cannot kindle it any time during the day - seeing as the Torah also writes "me'Erev ve'ad Boker", which the Beraisa explains to mean that one is obligated to pour in enough oil to last from evening until morning (half a Lug of oil, to suffice for the long nights of the winter).
(d)Alternatively, we learn from "me'Erev ve'ad Boker Ein l'cha Avodah Kesheirah me'Erev ad Boker Ela Zu Bil'vad - the kindling of the lights has to be the last Avodah of the day.
(e)And we know that the second offering of Ketores, which is written in the same Pasuk as the Menorah in Tetzaveh, cannot be brought all day - because it is compared to the Menorah (as we have just explained [and just as we know the latter, so we know the former]).