PESACHIM 61 (8 Shevat) - Dedicated in honor of the birthday of Gila Linzer.

1)

(a)Why, by all Korbanos, other than the Korban Pesach, is Shinuy Be'alim not applicable by 'the four Avodos', only by Zerikah?

(b)Why does Shinuy Be'alim not apply ...

1. ... after the owner's death?

2. ... by a Korban Tzibur?

(c)Why will Shinuy Be'alim not apply to a Korban Tzibur if the blood is sprinkled in the name of gentiles?

1)

(a)Shinuy Be'alim is not applicable by 'the four Avodos' (only by Zerikah) - because they are brought mainly as a Kaparah, and the Kaparah depends on the Zerikah. It is only the Pesach that is brought mainly to be eaten.

(b)Shinuy Be'alim does not apply ...

1. ... after the owner's death - because the Korban has no owner, so how can Shinuy Be'alim apply to it.

2. ... by a Korban Tzibur - because the Tzibur incorporates the whole of KlalYisrael, so which other Be'alim can one possibly have in mind?

(c)Shinuy Be'alim does not apply to a Korban Tzibur if the blood is sprinkled in the name of gentiles - because Shinuy Be'alim is confined to people who are Chayav to bring this Kaparah in the same way as he is (since we learn this from "Lechaper Alav" - 'Alav v'Lo Al Chavero').

2)

(a)Why is the Chumra of Pesulo b'Gufo pertaining to Shinuy Kodesh not really a Chumra at all?

(b)According to Rav Pinchas Brei d'Rav Ami, Shinuy Be'alim applies even after death. What are the ramifications of this statement?

(c)How does Rava conclude with regard to a Pesach that was Shechted during the year with Shinuy Be'alim?

2)

(a)The Chumra of Pesulo b'Gufo pertaining to Shinuy Kodesh is not really a Chumra at all - because it is not an intrinsic Pesul, only a Machshavah.

(b)According to Rav Pinchas Brei d'Rav Ami, Shinuy Be'alim applies even after death - means that, if the Korban was Shechted in the name of someone else, the heirs are obligated to bring another animal on their deceased father's behalf.

(c)Rava concludes that if a Pesach was Shechted during the year with Shinuy Be'alim - it is like a Pesach that was Shechted without an owner, and is Pasul.

3)

(a)What do the following have in common: 1. l'Ochlav v'she'Lo l'Ochlav; 2. li'Menuyav v'she'Lo li'Menuyav; l'Mulim v'la'Areilim; 4. la'Teme'im v'la'Tehorim?

(b)What is the reason for all of them?

3)

(a)If a Korban is Shechted l'Ochlav v'she'Lo l'Ochlav, li'Menuyav v'she'Lo li'Menuyav, l'Mulim v'la'Arelim or la'Teme'im v'la'Tehorim - it is Kasher.

(b)The reason for this is because Miktzas Ochlin does not invalidate the Pesach. The reason for that, we shall see later.

4)

(a)Is a Pesach that is Shechted before midday, Kasher?

(b)If it is Shechted before the Tamid, it is Kasher. What must one however, do should this happen?

(c)Is the Pesach Kasher if its blood was sprinkled before that of the Tamid?

4)

(a)A Pesach that is Shechted before midday is not Kasher - because the Torah writes in Bo "Bein ha'Arbayim".

(b)If the Pesach was Shechted before the Tamid, one must stir the blood until that of the Tamid has been sprinkled.

(c)If the blood of the Pesach was sprinkled before that of the Tamid - it is nevertheless Kasher.

5)

(a)What do learn from the Pasuk in Bo "b'Michsas"?

(b)How do we know that if a Pesach was Shechted exclusively for a group of people who were all not designated to eat it, that it is Pasul?

(c)What does Rebbi mean when he says 'Lashon Sursi Hu, k'Adam she'Omer la'Chaveiro, "Kus Li T'le Zeh" '?

(d)So now we know the Pesul of she'Lo li'Menuyav. From where do we know that she'Lo l'Ochlav invalidates, too?

5)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk "b'Michsas" - that the Pesach may only be Shechted for its designees.

(b)If a Pesach was Shechted exclusively for a group of people who were all not designated to eat it, we know that it is Pasul - because the Torah writes "b'Michsas" and "Tochosu", and whenever the Torah repeats something in the realm of Korbanos, it is to render it Pasul even b'Di'eved.

(c)When Rebbi says 'Lashon Sursi Hu, k'Adam she'Omer la'Chaveiro, "Kus Li T'le Zeh" ' - he means to say that 'Kus' is a Sursian word meaning 'Shecht', and we learn from this Pasuk that when one Shechts the Korban Pesach, one should do so having in mind the designees.

(d)we learn that she'Lo l'Ochlav invalidates, too - from the Pasuk "Ish l'Fi Ochlo Tachosu Al ha'Seh", which compares the Ochlin to the Menuyin; so just as she'Lo li'Menuyin is Pasul, so is she'Lo l'Ochlin.

61b----------------------------------------61b

6)

(a)We have already learnt that 'Yesh Machshavah me'Avodah la'Avodah'. If someone Shechts the Pesach on behalf of Mulim, but having in mind that the Zerikah should atone for Arelim, Rav Chisda invalidates the Pesach. What is Rabah's reason for validating it?

(b)Tum'as Be'alim invalidates the Pesach, and so does Zman (if the Shochet or the Kohen thought to eat it after the designated time has expired). What is the difference between them (as regards Miktzas)?

(c)Why might we learn Miktzas Orlah from ...

1. ... Miktzas Tum'ah rather from Miktzas Zman?

2. ... Miktzas Zman rather than from Miktzas Tum'ah?

6)

(a)Rabah's reason for validating a Pesach that was Shechted on behalf of Mulim, even when the Shochet had in mind that the Zerikah should atone for Arelim- is because of the principle 'Ein Machsheves Arelim bi'Zerikah (even though he had the thought during the Shechitah).

(b)Miktzas Tum'ah does not invalidate the Korban, whereas Miktzas Zman does.

(c)We might learn Miktzas Orlah from ...

1. ... Miktzas Tum'ah rather than from Miktzas Zman - because neither of them apply to other Kodshim other than the Pesach, since, unlike Zman, which applies to all Kodshim, 'Arel v'Tamei Meshalchin Korbenoseihen'.

2. ... Miktzas Zman rather than from Miktzas Tum'ah - because unlike Tum'ah, which has a Heter b'Tzibur, Orlah and Zman have no Heter under any circumstances.

7)

(a)What does Rabah learn from the Pasuk in Bo ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo"?

2. ... "Zos Chukas ha'Pesach ... Kol Arel Lo Yochal Bo"?

(b)Why is Zerikah more lenient in this regard?

(c)How does Rav Chisda interpret ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo"?

2. ... "Zos Chukas ha'Pesach ... Kol Arel Lo Yochal Bo"?

(d)Why, according to Rav Chisda, is Zerikah more stringent in this regard?

7)

(a)Rabah learns from the Pasuk ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo" - that 'Kulah Orlah Paslah, Miktzas Orlah Lo Paslah'.

2. ... "Zos Chukas ha'Pesach ... Kol Arel Lo Yochal Bo" - that 'bi'Shechitah Hu d'Kulah Orlah Miha Paslah, Aval Zerikah Afilu Kulah Orlah Nami Lo Paslah'.

(b)Zerikah is more lenient in this regard - because 'Ein Machsheves Ochlin bi'Zerikah'.

(c)Rav Chisda interprets ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel Lo Yochal Bo" - like Rabah (i.e. 'Kulah Orlah Paslah, Miktzas Orlah Lo Paslah').

2. ... "Zos Chukas ha'Pesach ... Kol Arel Lo Yochal Bo" - that 'Shechitah Hu d'Miktzasah Lo Paslah, Aval Zerikah, Afilu Miktzasah Paslah'.

(d)According to Rav Chisda, Zerikah is more stringent because Pigul is fixed by the Zerikah (i.e. Pigul applies [in retrospect] only if the four Avodos - up to and including the Zerikah were completed b'Kashrus).

8)

(a)Rav Ashi throws a spoke in the wheel. How does he explain ...

1. ... "v'Chol Arel"?

2. ... "Zos"?

8)

(a)Rav Ashi Darshens ...

1. ... "v'Kol Arel" - to mean 'Kol Dehu Orlah' - even if only one member of the group is an Arel the Pesach is invalid.

2. ... "Zos" - to mean that only if all the members are Arelim does it become Pasul.

OTHER D.A.F. RESOURCES
ON THIS DAF