1)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that the Madir may teach the Mudar Medrash, Halachos & Agados, but not Mikra. Why the difference? How does Shmuel establish the Mishnah?

(b)Under which circumstances would he even be permitted to teach him Mikra, too?

(c)And under which circumstances may one even take money for teaching Medrash ... ?

1)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that the Madir may teach the Mudar Medrash, Halachos & Agados, but not Mikra - because, as Shmuel explains, our Mishnah speaks in a place where it is customary to take remuneration for Mikra (in accordance with the Halachah) but not for Medrash ... . Consequently, by teaching him free of charge, the Madir is benefiting the Mudar monetarily in the case of Mikra, but not in that of Medrash.

(b)He would even be permitted to teach him Mikra, too - in a place where it was customary not to take remuneration for Mikra (on account of Medrash).

(c)And one may even take money for teaching Medrash ... - if, during that time, one could have been earning money in other areas, and he is now merely recuperating his losses ('Sechar Batalah').

2)

(a)What do we learn from the Pasuk in Vaeschanan ...

1. ... "v'Osi Tzivah Hash-m ba'Eis ha'Hi"?

2. ... "Re'eh Limadti Eschem Chukim u'Mishpatim Ka'asher Tzivani Hash-m Elokai"?

(b)How do we know that Moshe did not mean to say ...

1. ... that he should teach them for remuneration?

2. ... that he was merely reassuring them that whatever he teaching them was what Hash-m told him to, and not what he himself saw fit to teach them?

2)

(a)We learn from the Pasuk in Va'eschanan ...

1. ... "v'Osi Tzivah Hash-m ba'Eis ha'Hi" - that Hash-m commanded Moshe to teach Yisrael Torah.

2. ... "Re'eh Limadti Eschem Chukim u'Mishpatim Ka'asher Tzivani Hash-m Elokai" - that He also commanded him to teach it free of charge (just as Hash-m taught him free of charge).

(b)Moshe cannot mean to say ...

1. ... that he should teach them for remuneration - because it is not feasible to say that Hash-m ordered him to do that.

2. ... that he was merely reassuring them that whatever he teaching them was what Hash-m told him to, and not what he himself saw fit to teach them - because the Torah has already written in Yisro "v'Gam Becha Ya'aminu Le'olam", from which we learn that Yisrael trusted Moshe implicitly.

3)

(a)According to Rav, the Heter to teach Mikra for remuneration is because the payment is for looking after the Talmidim rather than for the actual teaching. What does 'looking after' mean?

(b)What does Rebbi Yochanan say?

(c)What practical difference is there between the two explanations?

(d)What is the Halachah?

3)

(a)According to Rav, the Heter to teach Mikra for remuneration is because the payment is for looking after the Talmidim rather than for the actual teaching. 'Looking after' means - to stop them from running around wild in the streets (see Rosh DH 'Sechar Shimur).

(b)According to Rebbi Yochanan - the remuneration is for teaching them the Neginos (of Leining, which is not a Torah obligation).

(c)The practical difference between the two explanations is - where one teaches a grown-up, who learn the Neginos, but does not need looking after.

(d)The Halachah is like Rebbi Yochanan, because of the principle 'Rav v'Rebbi Yochanan, Halachah k'Rebbi Yochanan'.

4)

(a)What do we ask on Rav from the Reisha of our Mishnah, which forbids the Madir to learn Tanach with the Mudar?

(b)We answer that the Reisha is speaking about a Katan. Despite the fact that it causes the Katan to contravene his Neder (by gaining 'Sechar Shimur'), why is it wrong to teach him, bearing in mind that one is not obligated to stop a Katan from sinning ('Katan Ochel Neveilos, Ein Beis Din Metzuvin Lahafrisho')?

(c)On what grounds do we query this answer from the Seifa 'Aval Melamed Hu es Banav v'es Benosav Mikra'?

(d)To answer the Kashya from the Seifa, we amend the Seifa to read 'Im Hayah Gadol, Melamed Lo ul'Vanav Mikra'. Considering that his son needs looking after, why is it permitted to learn with him?

4)

(a)We ask on Rav from the Reisha of our Mishnah, which we assume, is talking about a Gadol, and which forbids the Madir to learn Tanach with the Mudar. Seeing as a Gadol does not need looking after, as we just explained - why should the Madir not teach him Tanach.

(b)We answer that the Reisha is speaking about a Katan. Despite the fact that one is not obligated to stop a Katan from sinning ('Katan Ochel Neveilos, Ein Beis-Din Metzuvin Lehafrisho') one is nevertheless forbidden to teach him (thereby causing him to contravene his Neder, by gaining 'Sechar Shimur') - because l'Chatchilah, it is nevertheless wrong to feed a Katan what is Asur to him.

(c)We query this answer - from the Seifa 'Aval Melamed Hu es Banav v'es Benosav Mikra' - inasmuch as, if the Tana is talking about a Katan, how can he have children? Note, that this is also the reason for the initial assumption that the Tana must be speaking about a Gadol.

(d)To answer the Kashya from the Seifa, we amend the Seifa to read 'Im Hayah Gadol, Melamed Lo ul'Vanav Mikra'. Despite the fact that his son needs looking after, the Madir is nevertheless permitted to learn with him - because this is not worse than feeding the children of the Mudar, which the Tana permits.

5)

(a)The Beraisa permits learning the second time with children on Shabbos, but not the first, a distinction which is difficult to understand according to Rav ('Sechar Shemirah'). Why does it apparently conform nicely with Rebbi Yochanan (Sechar Pisuk Ta'amim)?

(b)Rav will retort that even the first time should be permitted, even if the remuneration is for Pisuk Ta'amim (so why ask specifically on him and not on Rebbi Yochanan too). What does this mean? What is Havla'ah?

5)

(a)The Beraisa permits learning the second time with children on Shabbos, but not the first, a distinction which is difficult to understand according to Rav ('Sechar Shemirah). It apparently conforms nicely however, with Rebbi Yochanan (Sechar Pisuk Ta'amim) - because the main remuneration is for learning the first time, which is the most difficult, but not for Chazarah.

(b)Rav will retort that even the first time should be permitted, even if the remuneration is for Pisuk Ta'amim (so why ask specifically on him) - because a Rebbi is normally hired for an extended period of time (not just for Shabbos), in which case he is permitted to receive remuneration 'be'Havla'ah' (when it is absorbed in the wages of the rest of the week).

6)

(a)The Beraisa refers to hiring someone to look after a child, a cow or seeds. What does he mean by ...

1. ... a child?

2. ... a cow?

3. ... seeds?

(b)What distinctions does the Tana make in the above case (as regards remuneration), between whether the man was hired for the Shabbos only or whether he was hired for a week, a month or a year?

(c)The Tana also speaks about a Sechir Shavu'a. What is a 'Sechir Shavu'a'?

(d)What other difference is there between the man who is hired for Shabbos only, and the one who is hired for an extended period?

6)

(a)The Beraisa refers to hiring someone to look after a child, a cow or seeds. By ...

1. ... a child - he is referring to a child who is designated from birth to fill the water from a fountain for the Parah Adumah. He would be born and reared in a courtyard specially built on rocks which were known not to cover hidden graves (to ensure that he was Tahor from Tum'as Mes).

2. ... a cow - he means the Parah Adumah.

3. ... seeds - he means seeds that were specially guarded with the intention of planting for the Omer.

(b)In the above case - the Tana rules that if the man is hired for the Shabbos only - he does not get paid; whereas if he is hired for a week, a month, a or a year, he does.

(c)The Tana also speaks about a Sechir Shavu'a - meaning that he is hired for a seven-year cycle.

(d)The other difference between the man who is hired for Shabbos only, and the one who is hired for an extended period is - that the former, seeing as he does not get paid, is only a Shomer Chinam, and is therefore exempt from paying should the article be stolen or lost; whereas the latter, who does get paid, is a Shomer Sachar, who is obligated to pay for theft and loss.

37b----------------------------------------37b

7)

(a)We have just refuted our initial understanding of the Beraisa (that it is forbidden to learn with a child something new because of 'S'char Shabbos'), and go on to ascribe the prohibition to the Mitzvah of participating in Oneg Shabbos together with his father. How we then explain the difference between the first time learning and the second?

(b)The second explanation, bases the distinction on a statement of Shmuel. What did Shmuel say about Shabbos meals? How does that explain the difference?

7)

(a)We have just refuted our initial understanding of the Beraisa (that it is forbidden to learn with a child something new because of 'S'char Shabbos'), and go on to ascribe the prohibition to the Mitzvah of participating in Oneg Shabbos together with his father. And the reason that the Tana then confines the prohibition to the first time is - because that is when the child needs more concentration and his father will be afraid to disturb him from his learning when he goes to eat his Shabbos meal.

(b)The second explanation, bases the distinction on a statement of Shmuel - who says that a change of eating habits causes sickness. Consequently, having eaten special food on Shabbos, the child will feel bloated and not be able to concentrate on something difficult. So Chazal instituted that he should do Chazarah on Shabbos, which is easier and with which he should be able to cope.

8)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan declines to learn like Rav, because, he says, 'daughters do not require looking after'. Why is that?

(b)How do we know that, when the Tana says 'Aval Lo Yelamdenu Mikra', he is talking about girls?

(c)Some texts present the Kashya as 'Gadol Mi Ba'i Shimur'. Considering that we have already established the Reisha by a Katan, what is the Kashya?

(d)On what grounds does Rav decline to learn like Rebbi Yochanan?

8)

(a)Rebbi Yochanan declines to learn like Rav, because, he says, 'daughters do not require looking after' - since they do not tend to run outside like boys do.

(b)When the Tana says 'Aval Lo Yelamdenu Mikra', we know that he is talking about girls too - because 'ha'Noder Hana'ah me'Chaveiro', does not indicate any difference between men and women.

(c)Some texts present the Kashya as 'Gadol Mi Ba'i Shimur', in spite of our having already established the Reisha by a Katan - because Rebbi Yochanan considers that explanation a Dochek (forced [because of the Seifa, as we explained there]).

(d)Rav declines to learn like Rebbi Yochanan - because in his opinion, the obligation to learn the Neginos is d'Oraisa (in which case, it must be taught free of charge).

9)

(a)Rav Ika bar Avin Amar Rav Chananel Amar Rav explains the Pasuk in Nechemyah "Vayikre'u b'Sefer Toras ha'Elokim, Mefurash, Shum Sechel ... ". These three phrases refer to the text of the Chumash, Targum Onkelus and the ends of the Pesukim (see Tosfos and the Rosh) respectively. Which two things might "Vayavinu b'Mikra" refer to?

(b)Rebbi Yitzchak places Mikra Sofrim, Itur Sofrim, Karyan v'Lo Kesivan and Kesivan v'Lo Karyan in the same category. What do they all have in common?

(c)What is meant by 'Mikra Sofrim'?

9)

(a)Rav Ika bar Avin Amar Rav Chananel Amar Rav explains the Pasuk in Nechemyah "Vayikre'u b'Sefer Toras ha'Elokim, Mefurash, Shum Sechel ... ". These three phrases refer to the text of the Chumash, Targum Onkelus and the ends of the Pesukim (see Tosfos and the Rosh) respectively. "Vayavinu b'Mikra" refers - either to Pisuk Ta'amim or to the Mesoros (missing and extra letters - Rosh).

(b)Rebbi Yitzchak places Mikra Sofrim, Itur Sofrim, Karyan v'Lo Kesivan and Kesivan v'Lo Karyan in the same category inasmuch as - they are all Halachah l'Moshe mi'Sinai.

(c)Mikra Sofrim is - the change of vowels (such as from Eretz to Aretz or from "Shamayim" and "Mitzrayim" with a 'Patach' to "Shamayim" and "Mitzrayim" with a 'Kamatz', whenever the latter appear at the end of a Pasuk or by an Esnachta [which is the equivalent of a comma]).

10)

(a)'Itur Sofrim' refers to "Achar Ta'avoru" (Vayeira)"; "Achar Teilech" (Chayei Sarah); "Achar Te'asef" (Matos); "Kidmu Sharim Achar Nognim" (Tehilim); "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel" (Tehilim). What is the simple explanation of this ...

1. ... in all the cases where the word "Achar" appears?

2. ... in the case of "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel"?

(b)How do others explain it with regard to ...

1. ... all the cases containing the word "Achar"?

2. ... "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel"? What is the difference between the two placings of the word "Kel"?

(c)What is the difference between 'Karyan v'Lo Kesivan' and 'Kesivan v'Lo Karyan'?

10)

(a)'Itur Sofrim' refers to "Achar Ta'avoru" (Vayera)"; "Achar Telech" (Chayei Sarah); "Achar Te'asef" (Matos); "Kidmu Sharim Achar Nognim" (Tehilim); "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel" (Tehilim). The simple explanation of this ...

1. ... in all the cases where the word "Achar" appears is - that the Torah could just as well have written a 'Vav' instead, only "Achar" is more sophisticated.

2. ... in the case of "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel" - the Torah should have written "Tzidkascha Harerei Kel" (like it writes in the phrase that follows "Mishpatecha Tehom Rabah"), meaning that the large mountains (referring to the angels) need the Tzedakah of Hash-m, but that the Pasuk wrote "k'Harerei Kel" which is more sophisticated (it is unclear what this means, seeing as the addition of "ke" completely changes the meaning of the word).

(b)Others explain it with regard to ...

1. ... all the cases containing the word "Achar" - inasmuch as "Achar Telech" (for example) normally implies "After you have gone" (and so it is with all of them), so they arranged the Neginos so as to imply "afterwards you will go" (though here too, it is unclear why this is not included in 'Pisuk Ta'amim').

2. ... "Tzidkascha k'Harerei Kel" - in similar fashion: that the words per se imply that Hash-m's righteousness is like the mountains of Hash-m, but now that they arranged the Neginos in such a way that "Keil" is separated from "k'Harerei". Consequently, Kel becomes the subject, as if the Pasuk had written "Kel, Tzidkascha k'Harerei" ("Hash-m, Your righteousness is revealed like the mountains"!)

(c)The difference between 'Karyan v'Lo Kesivan' and 'Kesivan v'lo Karyan' is - that the former comprises words that are read but not written (such as "b'Lechto Lehoshiv Yado Al Nehar Pras" [Shmuel], where the word "Pras is not written); whereas the latter comprises words that are written but not read, such as "b'Hishtachaveisi Beis Rimon Yislach Na Hash-m la'Avdecha", where the word "Na" is not read).

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