Why does it say "va'Yomeru"?
Malbim: This is their 'proof' that Hashem does not see or oversee. If He did, he would wage the case of the oppressed and take vengeance against Resha'im! Rather, He does not see matters of the lower world.
Why does it say both "Lo Yir'eh" and "v'Lo Yavin"?
Malbim: There were two groups of deniers. One denied only Hashgachah on individual matters, but they agreed that He knows everything from the beginning in a general way, but not details. Details are seen via eyes; Hashem does not have physical Kelim to see them. He cannot see new matters. Moreh ha'Nevuchim (3:16) says so in the name of philosophers. They said "Lo Yir'eh Kah." Their proof was from Resha'im's success. The other group denied also Hashem's knowledge. Their 'proof' was from the crushing of Yisrael and murder of widows and Gerim. If Hashem knew generally from the beginning, He would not create Resha'im that will destroy society. All these claims are in Iyov's dispute with his friends.
Why does it say "Elokei Yakov"?
Radak: Among the nations, the only true Elokim is Elokei Yakov. Those who do evil to Yisrael say that Yisrael's G-d does not see or understand people's actions. Therefore, they do not fear retribution for their actions.
