?Vayavo Elokim el Bil?am Laylah?. What is the significance of the fact that Hashem appeared to Bil?am in the night?
R. Bachye (citing Vayikra Rabah): Hashem appeare to the prophets of Yisrael in the day, but to the prophets of the nations of the world, in the night.
How will we reconcile this Pasuk, where Hashem retracted from His previous instructions, with the Pasuk in 23:19 "Lo Ish Keil ... ve'Yisnecham" - which teaches us that Hashem does not change His mind??
Rashi: Hashem allowed him to go, provided he went purely for financial gain. 1
Ramban #1 (citing the Ibn Ezra): Hashem allowed him to go because he insisted. 2
Ramban #2, R. Bachye #1, Seforno and Riva (citing R"M of Kutzi): Hashem now permitted him to go 3 , provided they called him to come in an advisory capacity 4 , and not to curse Yisrael. 5
R. Bachye #2: Hashem did not change his mind; He allowed him to go, should he opt to do so. 6
Kol Eliyahu and Divrei Eliyahu: Refer to 22:22:1:11.
Da'as Zekenim: So that Bil?am should not not accuse Hashem of causing him, to lose his wages.
Riva: As the Gemara states in Makos, 10b; 'be'Derech she'Adam Rotzeh Leilech, Molichin oso' - Refer to 22:35:1:1. See also Torah Temimah, note 8, who elborates. See also Ramban, who rejects this explanation..
Ramban: In fact, he did nothing wrong in asking Hashem a second time whether he should go or not.
Seforno: "li'Kero l'cha" - as in Bamidbar, 1:16 - "Keri'ei ha'Eidah". See also Shmuel 1, 28:15.
Ramban: And provided he says whatever Hashem tells him to say, without fear of Balak.
R. Bachye: Much in he same way as He allowed Yisrael to send the spies, even though He had already already told them that the land was good. See R. Bachye. See also answer #2 note 1.
See Torah Temimah, note 7.
And Hashem sllowed Bil'am to go even with the intention of cursing Yisrael - though he did not allow him to actually curse them when it came to the crunch.
Seeing as Bil'am was not permitted to curse Yisrael, why did Hashem order Bil'am "Kum Lech Itam"?
Refer to 22:20:1:3 and note 3.
Seforno: In order to warn Yisrael not to sin.
What are the implications of ?ve?Ach es ha?Davar asher Adaber eilecha oso Sa?aseh?.
Ramban and R. Bachye: It implies even if Hashem would instruct him to bless Yisrael (without fear of Balak - Ramban).
Since Hashem clearly told Bil'am that he may say only what He will tell him to say, why did Bil'am opt to go with the men?
Rashi: Because he thought that he would be able to talk Hashem into allowing him to curse Yisrael.
Rashi #2: Refer to 22:9:51:1.
