Mishnah 1
1)
(a)The Mishnah discusses a Shali'ach (See Tos. Yom-Tov) who delivers a Get from overseas. What does 'overseas' incorporate?
(b)What is he obligated to declare before giving it to the woman?
(c)Some say that this is because the people of Chutz la'Aretz, who are not B'nei Torah, are not aware that the Get must be written li'Shemah (specifically for the woman who is being divorced). How will saying 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' solve that problem?
(d)What reason do others give for this Halachah?
(e)How can one witness suffice regarding matters of Ishus?
1)
(a)The Mishnah discusses a Shali'ach (See Tos. Yom-Tov) who delivers a Get from overseas. 'Overseas' incorporates - the whole of Chutz la'Aretz (See also Tos. Yom-Tov).
(b)Before giving it to the woman, he is obligated to declare -'be'Fanai Nichtav u've'Fanai Nechtam' (that it was both written and signed in his presence).
(c)Some say that this is because the people of Chutz la'Aretz, who are not B'nei Torah, are not aware that the Get must be written li'Shemah (specifically for the woman who is being divorced), and when the Shali'ach declares 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' - the Beis-Din will automatically ask him whether the Get was written Lish'mah.
(d)The reason that others give for this Halachah is - in order to counter the husband's claim should he deny having written it.
(e)The Chachamim gave one witness in this case, the power of two (despite the fact that matters of Ishus generally require two witnesses).
2)
(a)What does Rabban Gamliel say about Rekem and Cheger (two towns [Kadeish and Barad, See Tos. Yom-Tov], which are not overseas)?
(b)According to Rebbi Eliezer, the same applies to a Shali'ach who delivers a Get from K'far Ludim to Lod. What is the significance of these two towns?
(c)What do the Chachamim say?
2)
(a)Rabban Gamliel rules that - the current Din applies even to Rekem and Cheger (two towns [Kadeish and Barad, See Tos. Yom-Tov], which are not overseas).
(b)According to Rebbi Eliezer, the same applies to a Shali'ach who delivers a Get from K'far Ludim (which is in Chutz la'Aretz) to Lod - which is (next to it, but) in Eretz Yisrael (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(c)According to the Chachamim, it is only if one brings the Get from afar - that one needs to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav u've'Fanai Nechtam (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
3)
(a)What does the Mishnah say about a Shali'ach who brings a Get from one province overseas to another?
(b)What does Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel say about a Shali'ach who brings a Get overseas from one district to another in the same town (assuming they each have their mayor?
(c)What is the reason for the latter ruling?
3)
(a)The Mishnah - includes a Shali'ach who brings a Get from one province overseas to another in the current Halachah (See Tos. Yom-Tov) ...
(b)... whereas Rabban Shimon ben Gamliel extends it even to a Shali'ach who brings a Get overseas from one district to another in the same town (See Tos. Yom-Tov [assuming they each have their mayor]) ...
(c)... because a certain animosity exists between one mayor and another, that makes traveling from one to the other difficult.
Mishnah 2
4)
(a)What does Rebbi Yehudah mean when he says 'from Rekem and eastwards'?
(b)If Ashk'lon is considered the southernmost border in this regard, which town is the northernmost border?
(c)How about Rekem, Ashk'lon and Acco themselves according to Rebbi Yehudah?
(d)With which of these three towns does Rebbi Meir disagree?
4)
(a)When Rebbi Yehudah says 'from Rekem and eastwards', he means that - eastwards of Rekem is considered Chutz la'Eretz as regards Gitin.
(b)Ashk'lon is considered the southernmost border in this regard - and Acco the northernmost border (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(c)Rekem, Ashk'lon (See Tos. Yom-Tov) and Acco themselves - are outside the border, according to Rebbi Yehudah.
(d)Rebbi Meir disagrees with - Acco, which he considers part of Eretz Yisrael with regard to Gitin.
Mishnah 3
5)
(a)What does the Mishnah say about a Shali'ach who delivers a Get in Eretz Yisrael?
(b)What if the husband claims that the Get is forged?
(c)In which two possible ways can this be done?
(d)How will the Din differ nowadays?
(e)On what condition is it not necessary to do so?
5)
(a)The Mishnah rules that a Shali'ach who delivers a Get in Eretz Yisrael - is not required to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ...' (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(b)If the husband (See Tos. Yom-Tov) claims that the Get is forged - then the Get must be verified via its signatories ...
(c)... either by the witnesses substantiating their own signatures or by other witnesses substantiating them.
(d)Nowadays - the Shali'ach needs to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav u've'Fanai Nechtom even in Eretz Yisrael (See Tos. Yom-Tov DH 'Yiskayem ... ') ...
(e)... unless the signatures of the signatories can be verified.
6)
(a)What does the Tana mean when he refers to a case where the Shali'ach is unable to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?
(b)What does he rule there?
6)
(a)When the Tana refers to a case where the Shali'ach is unable to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ', he means that - the Shali'ach was able to do so when he received the Get, but became dumb before he had a chance to make the declaration (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(b)He rules there that - if the Sh'tar has signatories (See Tos. Yom-Tov), it must be verified via its signatories (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
Mishnah 4
7)
(a)In which other regard, besides Gitei Nashim, is a Shali'ach obligated to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '?
(b)Why is that?
7)
(a)Besides Gitei Nashim, a Shali'ach is also obligated to say 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' - if he brings a Get Shichrur (on behalf of an Eved Cana'ani) from Chutz la'Aretz to Eretz Yisrael ...
(b)... because it too, must be written li'Shemah (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
Mishnah 5
8)
(a)What other comparison does the Mishnah make between Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim (in connection with one that is signed by a Kuti witness)?
(b)What did Rabban Gamliel, who was then in K'far Usnai, rule when they brought before him a Get where both signatories were Kutim?
(c)On what grounds would the Tana Kama have disqualified it?
(d)What would the Din be nowadays, if such a Get came before Beis-Din?
(e)Why is that?
8)
(a)Another comparison the Mishnah makes between Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim - is that - they are the only Sh'taros that are valid even if they are signed by a Kuti witness (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(b)When they brought before Rabban Gamliel, who was then in K'far Usnai, a Get where both signatories were Kutim - he ruled that it was valid (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(c)The Tana Kama would have disqualified it - since he only permits one Kuti witness, but not two.
(d)If such a Get came before Beis-Din nowadays - they would declare it Pasul ...
(e)... because the Chachamim declared the Kutim Nochrim in all regards.
9)
(a)What further comparison does the Tana Kama draw between Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim (with regard to witnesses who testify in a non-Jewish court of law0?
(b)What if the signatories are also gentiles?
(c)What sort of Sh'taros are Kasher under these circumstances?
(d)On what condition are they Kasher?
9)
(a)The Tana Kama also rules that - with the exception of Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim, if witnesses verify Sh'taros in a non-Jewish court of law they are Kasher ...
(b)... even if the signatories are also gentiles.
(c)In fact - it is only Sh'taros concerning a loan or a sale (See Tos. Yom-Tov) that are Kasher under these circumstances, but anything that falls under the category of 'Ma'aseh Beis-Din (even Sh'taros of admission [See Tos. Yom-Tov]) have the same Din as Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim.
(d)Moreover, they are only Kasher - if we know for a fact that their ruling conCUR with those of Beis-Din.
10)
(a)What does Rebbi Shimon say about the previous ruling?
(b)On what condition will he concede that Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim are Pasul in a non-Jewish court of law?
(c)Like whom is the Halachah?
10)
(a)Rebbi Shimon rules - that even Gitei Nashim and Shichrurei Avadim are Kasher in a non-Jewish court of law (See Tos. Yom-Tov) ...
(b)... unless the 'judges' are amateurs (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
(c)The Halachah is - like the Tana Kama.
Mishnah 6
11)
(a)What does Rebbi Meir rule concerning a man who retracts after handing a Shali'ach a Get Ishah or a Get Shichrur to deliver to his wife or his Eved Cana'ani, respectively?
(b)up to when is he able to do so?
(c)What is the reason for this ruling?
(d)On which principle is this ruling based?
(e)On what basis do the Chachamim agree in the case of thye wife, but not in the case of an Eved?
11)
(a)Rebbi Meir rules that - a man has the right to retract after handing a Shali'ach a Get Ishah or a Get Shichrur to deliver to his wife or his Eved Cana'ani, respectively ...
(b)... up to the time that the Get has been handed over ...
(c)... because both the woman and the Eved subsequently lose their source of sustenance ...
(d)... and we have a principle - 'Ein Chavin le'Adam she'Lo be'Fanav' (one cannot cause a person a loss not in his presence), in which case the Shali'ach will not acquire the Get on behalf of either of them.
(e)The Chachamim agree with Rebbi Meir in the case of the wife - who is obligated to feed his wife (in which case the loss incurred by the Get is real); but not in the case of the Eved - since a master is anyway not obligated to feed his slave (See Tos. Yom-Tov).
12)
(a)How does Rebbi Meir query the Chachamim, assuming that the master/husband is a Kohen (See Tos. Yom-Tov)?
(b)What do they answer? Why is it nevertheless not a loss to the Eved to go free?
(c)How does this differ from a wife of a Kohen, whose divorce is considered a loss since she loses the right to eat T'rumah?
12)
(a)Rebbi Meir queries the Chachamim (assuming that the master/husband is a Kohen) [See Tos. Yom-Tov]) in that - even in the case of the Eved Cana'ani, the Get Shichrur causes him to lose his rights to eat T'rumah.
(b)To which they answer - that that is not considered a loss ...
(c)... since, unlike a wife, who eats T'rumah due to her elevated status as the wife of a Kohen) - he only eats T'rumah in the capacity of being the Kohen's possession (like his animal [See Tos. Yom-Tov]).
13)
(a)What does the Mishnah rule in the case of a man who dies immediately after saying 'Give ...
1. ... this Get to my wife or this Sh'tar Shichrur to my Eved?
2. ... a Manah to so-and-so?
(b)What is the reason for the former ruling?
(c)Based on which principle do we then follow his instructions in the latter case?
13)
(a)The Mishnah rules that if a man dies immediately after saying 'Give ...
1. ... this Get to my wife or this Sh'tar Shichrur to my Eved - one does not fulfill his request.
2. ... a Manah to so-and-so - one does.
(b)The reason for the former ruling is - because a. a Get is only valid when it reaches the hand of the recipient, and b. it cannot take effect after the death of the husband/master.
(c)And the reason that we follow his instructions in the latter case is - due to the principle 'Divrei Shechiv-M'ra ki'Shesuvim ve'chi'Mesurin Damu (The words of a person on his death-bed take effect immediately, as if they were written and signed)'.
