1)

(a)The Mishnah in Taharos states 'ha'Nitzok, ve'ha'Ketapras u'Mashkeh Tofe'ach Eino Chibur' Lo le'Tum'ah ve'Lo le'Taharah'. What is ...

1. ... 'Nitzok'?

2. ... 'Ketapras'?

(b)What does the Tana mean when he says ...

1. ... 'Eino Chibur le'Tum'ah'?

2. ... 'Eino Chibur le'Taharah?

1)

(a)The Mishnah in Taharos states 'ha'Nitzok ve'ha'Ketapras u'Mashkeh Tofe'ach Eino Chibur' Lo le'Tum'ah ve'Lo le'Taharah'.

1. 'Nitzok' is - water that is being poured from one receptacle into another through the air.

2. 'Ketapras' is - when the water is being poured down a slope, such as a board.

(b)When the Tana says ...

1. ... 'Eino Chibur le'Tum'ah' - he means that if there if there is something Tamei in the bottom receptacle, the water in the top receptacle remains Tahor.

2. ... 'Eino Chibur le'Taharah - he means that if two Mikva'os, neither of which contains forty Sa'ah, are combined by means of a Nitzok or a Ketapras, even someone who Tovels in the lower one, will not be Tahor.

2)

(a)What is the problem with establishing Ilfa's She'eilah ('Yadayim Tehoros le'Chataza'in or in Tehoros la'Chatza'in') by combining half a hand that is still Tofe'ach al-M'nas Lehatfi'ach with the other half that he subsequently washes?

2)

(a)The problem with establishing Ilfa's She'eilah (('Yadayim Tehoros le'Chataza'in or in Tehoros la'Chatza'in') by combining half a hand that is still Tofe'ach al-M'nas Lehatfi'ach with the other half that he washes subsequently is - that we already know this from the Mishnah 'Tofe'ach Lehatfi'ach, Chibur'.

3)

(a)What is the problem with two people who Toveled one after the other, in a Mikvah that contained exactly forty Sa'ah?

(b)According to the Tana Kama in Mikva'os, the second person remains Tamei. On what condition does Rebbi Yehudah declare him Tahor?

(c)What is his reason?

(d)How does this Mishnah counter the Kashya that we just asked 'Ha Nami Tenina, Tofe'ach al-M'nas Lehatfi'ach Chibur'? Who is the author of the latter Mishnah?

(e)So why can we not resolve our She'eilah from Rebbi Yehudah's ruling? Why will his reason there not apply to washing one's hands in halves?

3)

(a)The problem with two people who Toveled one after the other in a Mikvah that contained exactly forty Sa'ah is - that the second one has Toveled in a Mikveh that contains less than forty Sa'ah.

(b)According to the Tana Kama in Mikva'os, the second person remains Tamei. Rebbi Yehudah declares him Tahor - as long as the feet of the first one are still touching the water ...

(c)... because the water on the body of the first person is considered joined to the Mikvah.

(d)This Mishnah counters the Kashya that we just asked 'Ha Nami Tenina, Tofe'ach al Menas Lehatfi'ach Chibur' - because it enables us to establish that Mishnah with regard to Mikva'os, and the author, as Rebbi Yehudah, who considers 'Tofe'ach al-M'nas Lehatfiach' as joined with regard to Mikva'os.

(e)We cannot resolve our She'eilah regarding washing one's hands in halves from Rebbi Yehudah's ruling - because his reason is the S'vara of 'Gud Acheis' (we extend the water on the first man's body, as if it was joined to the Mikveh), which may well join the two lots of water, but will not prove that one may wash one's hands in two stages.

4)

(a)What do the following two cases have in common: 'ha'Ba Rosho ve'Rubo be'Mayim She'uvim' and 'Tahor she'Naflu Al Rosho ve'Al Rubo Sheloshah Lugin Mayim She'uvin'?

(b)In keeping with the previous Sugyos, what She'eilah does Rebbi Yirmiyah ask with regard to them?

(c)What special concession did Chazal grant a Ba'al Keri who is sick and who cannot go to Mikveh?

(d)Rav Papa now asks the same She'eilah as Rebbi Yirmiyah just asked regarding a Ba'al Keri who Tovels half of his body, and pours nine Kabin of water over the rest. What is the outcome of both She'eilos?

4)

(a)What the following two cases have in common: 'ha'Ba Rosho ve'Rubo be'Mayim She'uvim' and 'Tahor she'Naflu Al Rosho ve'Al Rubo Sheloshah Lugin Mayim She'uvin' is - that both become Tamei (mi'de'Rabanan), as we learned in Shabbos.

(b)In keeping with the previous Sugyos, Rebbi Yirmiyah asks - whether someone who entered into drawn water with half his body, and three Lugin of drawn water fell on the other half, becomes Tamei or not.

(c)Chazal allowed a Ba'al Keri who is sick and who cannot go to Mikveh - to have nine Kabin of water poured over him (to enable him to Daven - which he would otherwise be forbidden to do due to Takanas Ezra).

(d)Rav Papa asks the same She'eilah as Rebbi Yirmiyah just asked regarding a Ba'al Keri who Tovels half of his body and pours four Kabin of water over the rest. The outcome of both She'eilos is - Teiku ('Tishbi Yetaretz Kushyos ve'Ibayos').

5)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that if one witness declares 'be'Fanai Nichtav' and the other one, 'be'Fanai Nechtam', the Get is Pasul. How does Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yochanan qualify this? Under which circumstances will the Get be Kasher?

(b)What will the Din then be if they said nothing?

(c)Then why do they both need to be Sheluchim? Why will it not suffice that, when all's said and done, there are two witnesses available, even if only one of them is a Sheli'ach?

(d)In that case, how will we be forced to explain the Seifa of our Mishnah 'Shenayim Omrim be'Faneinu Nichtav , ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam, Pasul ... '?

5)

(a)We learned in our Mishnah that if one witness declares 'be'Fanai Nichtav' and the other one, be'Fanai Nechtam', the Get is Pasul. Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yochanan qualifies this - by establishing it when only one of them was a Shali'ach. If both were Sheluchim however, then the Get will be Kasher.

(b)The same will apply even if they said nothing - because Chazal only issued the decree of 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ', with one Shali'ach, but not with two (since the two Sheluchim can serve as two witnesses, should the need arise).

(c)The reason that we do not apply the same S'vara even there where only one of them is a Shali'ach is - because of the S'vara 'Lo P'lug' (Chazal did not differentiate between one single witness and another).

(d)In that case, we will be forced to explain the Seifa of our Mishnah 'Shenayim Omrim be'Faneinu Nichtav, ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam, Pasul ... ' - when only one of them is actually a Shali'ach. Otherwise, even the Rabbanan would agree with Rebbi Yehudah that the Get is Kasher.

16b----------------------------------------16b

6)

(a)If, as we just explained, the Machlokes between Rebbi Yehudah and the Rabbanan is confined to where only one of the witnesses is a Shali'ach, what is the basis of their Machlokes?

6)

(a)If, as we just explained, the Machlokes between Rebbi Yehudah and the Rabbanan is confined to where only one of the witnesses is a Shali'ach, the basis of their Machlokes is - whether we decree because of Kiyum Sh'taros (the Rabbanan) or not (Rebbi Yehudah).

7)

(a)How does Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yochanan establish 'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nichtav ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam, Pasul', according to the second Lashon?

(b)What can we extrapolate from this regarding two Sheluchim who bring a Get from overseas?

(c)Rav Asi asked Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah whether this means that the Seifa ('Shenayim Omrim be'Faneinu Nichtav ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam, Pasul, ve'Rebbi Yehudah Machshir') speaks even when the two witnesses are both Sheluchim. What did he reply?

(d)According to Rebbi Yochanan, how do we initially establish the basis of their Machlokes?

7)

(a)According to the second Lashon, Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah Amar Rebbi Yochanan establishes 'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nichtav ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam' - even when they are both Sheluchim.

(b)We can extrapolate from this that even two Sheluchim who bring a Get from overseas - must declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '.

(c)When Rav Asi asked Rav Shmuel bar Yehudah whether this means that the Seifa ('Shenayim Omrim be'Faneinu Nichtav ve'Echad Omer be'Fanai Nechtam, Pasul, ve'Rebbi Yehudah Machshir') speaks even when the two witnesses are both Sheluchim - he replied in the affirmative.

(d)According to Rebbi Yochanan, we initially establish the basis of their Machlokes - whether the reason for the Takanas Chazal to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' is (also) because 'L'fi she'Ein Beki'in Lishmah' (the Chachamim) or whether it is (only) because 'L'fi she'Ein Eidim Metzuyin Lekaymo' (Rebbi Yehudah).

8)

(a)Rava will certainly not be happy with this explanation, because it will mean that the Rabbanan do not hold of 'Ein Beki'in Lishmah' (like Rabah) and he will be following the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah. How will he therefore establish the Machlokes?

(b)How will Rabah, who concurs with the second Lashon of Rebbi Yochanan, interpret the Machlokes? How can the Get be Kasher according to Rebbi Yehudah?

8)

(a)Rava will certainly not be happy with this explanation, because it will mean that the Rabbanan do not hold of 'Ein Beki'in Lishmah' (like Rabah) and he will be following the opinion of Rebbi Yehudah. Consequently, he will establish the Machlokes like the first Lashon, which establishes our Mishnah when only one of the witnesses is actually a Shali'ach (and in the Seifa, when the two witnesses on the Kesivah are not).

(b)Rabah, who concurs with the second Lashon of Rebbi Yochanan - establishes the Machlokes after they learned how to write a Get Lishmah, and they argue over whether we are afraid that the situation will revert to the way it was before (the Rabbanan) or not (Rebbi Yehudah).

9)

(a)According to both opinions, why does Rebbi Yehudah not argue in the Reisha (when one of the Sheluchim said 'be'Fanai Nichtav', and the other, be'Fanai Nechtam')?

(b)If the Beraisa 'Rebbi Yehudah Machshir be'Zu, ve'Lo ba'Acheres' does not come to preclude the Reisha (proving what we just said wrong), then what does it come to preclude, according to what Ula told Rav Oshaya?

(c)Why do we need a Beraisa to teach us this? Why is it not obvious?

9)

(a)According to both opinions - Rebbi Yehudah does in fact, argue in the Reisha too (when one of the Sheluchim said 'be'Fanai Nichtav', and the other, 'be'Fanai Nechtam').

(b)The Beraisa 'Rebbi Yehudah Machshir be'Zu, ve'Lo ba'Acheres' does not come to preclude the Reisha (proving what we just said wrong). It comes to preclude, Ula told Rav Oshaya - when the Shali'ach said 'be'Fanai Nichtav', but not 'be'Fanai Nechtam'.

(c)We need a Beraisa to teach us this - because we might otherwise have thought that, since Rebbi Yehudah is not worried that the situation might revert to what it was, he is also not worried that people might confuse this with Kiyum Sh'taros (so the Beraisa teaches us that he is).

10)

(a)A statement made by Rav Yehudah corroborates the second Lashon of Rebbi Yochanan. What did Rav Yehudah say?

(b)When Rabah bar bar Chanah was sick, and Rav Yehudah and the Rabanan went to visit him, they asked him whether two Sheluchim who brought a Get from overseas need to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... '. What did he reply? What reason did he give for that?

10)

(a)A statement made by Rav Yehudah - 'Shenayim she'Heivi'u Get mi'Medinas ha'Yam Ba'nu le'Machlokes Rebbi Yehudah ve'Rabbanan' corroborates the second Lashon of Rebbi Yochanan.

(b)When Rabah bar bar Chanah was sick, and Rav Yehudah and the Rabbanan went to visit him, they asked him whether two Sheluchim who brought a Get from overseas need to declare 'be'Fanai Nichtav ... ' - he replied in the negative, because, he explained, they have a 'Migu' in that they could have said 'be'Faneinu Girshah', in which case they would certainly have been believed, (though we will need to explain why the principle that 'Migu' does not apply in the case of two witnesses, should not apply here).