The Rashbam suggests here that, as for Maror, the kiyum takes place with the eating of the Afikoman. However on 116a, he suggests that the second eating of Maror is to encourage the children's question - from which we understand that it is the first Maror that is the kiyum of Achilat Maror. How, then, do we explain the parralel?
Thanks in anticipation
Chag kasher v'sameach
Marc Abrahams (On behalf of shiur), Beit Shemesh, Israel
Dear Marc,
I did not see an implication in RASHBAM PESACHIM 116a that the second eating of Maror is to encourage the children's question.
The Gemara states there that Rava said that on all other nights we are not obliged to dip even once, whereas tonight we are obliged twice. Rav Safra challenged Rava that the word obliged is not applicable since this dipping is only for the children. RASHBAM DH CHIYUVA explains that the dipping is so that the children should ask why we are doing this.
However Rashbam does not write that this refers to the second dipping, and on the contrary in PESACHIM 114a DH AD he writes that the first dipping is so that the child should notice a difference and ask, because it is not usual for people to eat vegetables before the meal. This implies that that the second eating of vegetables, during the meal, is in order to fulfil the Mitzvah of eating Maror.
This is consistent with RASHBAM 119b DH AIN MAFTIRIN that the Mitzvah of Maror is performed by the second eating, and one must therefore say that the dipping to interest the children referred to on 116a refers to the first eating of vegetables before the meal.
Chag kasher v'sameach
D. BLOOM