On 7a it says That if a woman says to a man "Give money to so and so and I will thereby become betrothed to him" the kiddushin is valid as a combination of the principles of the guarantor and the canaanite slave. However how is this possible if the man in this situation is not active in any way whatsoever and in order for kiddushin to be valid he must be the active partner.
Thank you so much for your time.
Mitchell,
Dear Mitchell,
By the Canaanite slave, money must be given to aquire his own freedom. Even so, the Torah allows another's money to be used. From there the Gemara learns that the money does not have to belong to the future husband (referred to as "H").The Ran and Rosh however learn that prior to the money giving, H must make the giver his Shaliach (messenger). If so the giver's action is attributed to H, and it is as if H acted himself (but not with his money). The Rambam learns that H first said "Harei At Mekudeshes ..."
All the best,
Reuven Weiner