The Gmara at the end says that depends if it is the first wife (Sanui Meshaleach), but the second wife (OK send her away).
1) Is this according to whom? Beit Shamay also (sent her way because of Dvar Erva)?
2) What should a person who has a wife that committed Znut do according to the Gmara (1st marriage)? Why should he be "Sanui"?
3) What about if he is his 2nd wife but it is her 1st marriage, is this Eshet Neurecha?
Tks,
Binyomin K
Brazil
1) Rashi says (in explaining his alternative version of the Gemora, which happens to be our version) that this is according to Beis Hillel as well, that although permitted it is not praiseworthy.
2) According to all opinions, if his wife has had a confirmed affair with a strange man he must divorce her. (This is brought in Shulchan Aruch 119:3)
3) The straightforward answer is "No", and this is reflected consistently throughout the various Meforshim and Poskim, and is actually the simplist understanding of the Gemora itself. With a bit of a "pilpul" one may make a case for the fact that even if it is the woman's first marriage and not the man's that she enjoys this privilege, but since I see that the Meforshim ignored such a possibility, I consider the above straightforward answer of "No" as substantiated.
Shimon Brodie