The gemara on daf 2 explains that all opinions agree that if there is one eid for tumah, then the woman is assur immediately and no need to drink the mayim hamorririm. The gemara details how this is derived from the pasuk v'eid ein ba vehi lo nispasa.
What bother's me is how can the pasuk be understood as referring to tumah when the following psukim detail the requirement to bring a korbon and drink from the mayim morririm? Are the following psukim referring only to the case where there are no eidei tumah without any mention of this new scenario in the psukim?
(Maybe the word oi in the following pasuk hints to this - does anyone address this question?)
Any assistance would be much appreciated.
A Neuhoff, Brooklyn NY
Yes, I think the key word is "O".
Bamidbar 5:14 is discussing a scenario where there was one witness to Tum'ah. Then Bamidbar 5:15 stresses that there are in fact two possible scenarios in this story. The first scenario is the one already mentioned in Pasuk 14 i.e. Tum'ah. Then the Pasuk says "O" that means there is an alternative scenario where she was "Lo Nitme'ah" - no Tum'ah. The following Pesukim all explain what happens in the second scenario i.e. where there was not even one witness on Tum'ah. Then she brings the Korban and drinks the water. However the first half of verse 14 is not connected to the following Pesukim about the Korban and the water.
KOL TUV
Dovid Bloom