The gemara says that Avraham and Sara were initially tumtumim.
(a) When did their status change? Avraham's must have before he married Hagar or else there would have been no point in him marrying her?
(b) Also, no matter when his status did change, how come no mention was made of that occurrence? ( Presumably, it was a miracle that he was cured). Can you please give some insight into this topic?
Thank you.
Anat, new york, ny
(a) The Gemara in Shabbos 156a implies that Avraham's childless changed during the Bris Bein ha'Besarim, when he was 75 years old. However, the Gemara there also states that he would only be able to have children after his name would be changed to Avraham -- an event which occurred 24 years later, well after Yishmael was born, as you pointed out.
If this is your question, you may be proud to know that the RAMBAN discusses your question (in Bereishis 15:4). His answers are that the Gemara doesn't mean that Avraham could not have any children before his name was changed. Rather, either (1) he could not have children that would inherit him, and follow his ways, before his name would be changed, or (2) he could not have children with Sarah before his name was changed. (The Ramban favors the former explanation, since the Torah implies that Avraham did not know that Sarah could have children even after the prophesy of the Bris Bein ha'Besarim.)
(b) The RAMBAN (in Bereishis 46:15) makes an important point regarding miracles that were recorded in the Torah, which answers your question as well. He writes that the Torah only records miracles that were prophesied in advance of their occurrence, since they provide strong evidence of Hash-m's presence and of his control over the world. Other miracles do not provide evidence of the presence of the Creator Who gave the Torah and Sent the Prophets.
Another important point to make is that Rav Hutner, in Pachad Yitzchak (vol. on Pesach), shows that miracles that were not recorded openly in the Torah but in Midrashim may not have occurred in their literal sense, the same way that the events recorded in the Torah took place. They are often more metaphorical in meaning.
I hope this helps you,
M. Kornfeld
Kollel Iyun Hadaf
According to what was answered regarding the Rambans pshat that Avraham could not have any children who would inherit him or follow in his footsteps until his name was changed, the question still remains as to why Avraham would go and marry Hagar?- Why would a tzadik like Avraham knowingly go about having children who would not follow in the derech Hash-m?
Ari
A bigger question is why Sarah gave Hagar to Avraham, saying "Hash-m has not given me children, please take my maid that I may have children through her." If Hash-m told Avraham already, at the Bris Bein ha'Besarim, that when Hash-m changes Avraham and Sarah's names they will have children, then why didn't Sarah trust in Hash-m that He will eventually change her name and she will then have children? In fact, Avraham himself laughed when Hash-m told him, years after the Bris Bein ha'Besarim, that Sarah would have a child (Bereishis 17:17)!
The RAMBAN asks this question as well (in Bereishis 15:5), and concludes that even though the Midrash says that Hash-m mentioned that "Sarai will not bear a child, but Sarah will," it does not mean that Hash-m told that to Avraham at the Bris Bein ha'Besarim. Rather, Hash-m told him that when his name would be changed to Avraham he will have a child, and Hash-m said nothing about Sarah. The Midrash adds that Hash-m's plan was also to change the name of Sarah, so that she could have children, but Avraham and Sarah did not know that. This, in fact, is the way he proves his first explanation to be more correct than his second explanation (cited above).
Rashi, based on the Midrash, tell us that Sarah gave her maid to Avraham in order that she herself should be blessed with children in the merit of allowing her maid to be wedded to Avraham (Rashi, Bereishis 16:2). Hagar herself was very righteous, and deserving of Avraham (see Rashi there 16:1). Avraham, then, may have consented to have children from Hagar for Sarah's sake, to fulfill Sarah's request.
(According to the Ramban's second explanation, I would suggest that the Midrash means that Hash-m didn't even tell Avraham that he will bear children after his name is changed. Hash-m simply said that he would be taken out of his previous Mazal; the rest of the Midrash is an explanation, in hindsight, of what Hash-m meant by this. If so, it is not surprising that Avraham would take Hagar, thinking that Hash-m's promise might yet come true even though his name was not yet changed.)
M. Kornfeld
> According to what was answered regarding the Rambans pshat that Avraham could not have any children who would inherit him or follow in his footsteps until his name was changed, the question still remains as to why Avraham would go and marry Hagar?- Why would a tzadik like Avraham knowingly go about having children who would not follow in the derech Hash-m? <
Carl Sherer comments
Couldn't you also answer that Avraham Avinu was still obligated in Pirya v'Rivya even though he may may have known that the resulting offspring would not follow the Derech Hash-m? Why would Avraham's refusal to have children be any different from Chizkiyahu's refusal to have children because he knew Menashe would result?
Carl Sherer, Israel
I'm not sure that applies here. Avraham was promised that he would have children who would follow the ways of Hash-m later; he would just have to wait for the time to come. Why then should he try to have children who would not follow the ways of Hash-m before that time?
Best wishes,
M. Kornfeld