Daf ? Rashi on Hanna saying in his heart explains that how did the writers of the Megillah know that if not by ruach Hakodesh. The subsequent Rashi switches focus from the writers to Mordechai having RHK. By doing so, wouldn't that limit our proof to only proving that Mordechai had RHK but not the Megillah drafters themselves? That's problematic since it was the latter and not former point that the Gemarah was trying to prove. If one retorts that these are intertwined and one proved then proves the other (which itself is debatable), why then did Rashi not explain that in ????? ???? and remain consistent in his approach in the previous Rashi?
Daniel Gray, Toronto Canada
Let me shorten your question: What does Mordecai having Ruach ha'Kodesh during the Megilah have to do with establishing that the Megilah was written with Ruach ha'Kodesh?
This is a good question, asked by none other than the Turei Even, and he does not give an answer. I did see an answer given by the Chidushei Chasam Sofer on this Gemara, but it is lengthy and beyond the scope of this forum.
All the best,
Yaakov Montrose
I heard that the Yaaros Dvash (2:2) says that if the Megilla were not written with Ruach HaKodesh, Mordchai would not have written these things about himself due to his anivus.
Meir Eliezer Bergman
Manchester UK