On the bottom of Daf 75b the gemara asks on sumchus why should the zomemim be chayav kefel since the ganav was mechayav himself in the keren and the gemara answers ain hacha nami and ammends the text to read that way. Why is the ? not equally applicable to the rabbanan?
Simon Wolf, Westport, CT
Only Sumchus says explicitly, "Hem Meshalmim Kefel," which is a misleading term. The Halachah is true, though, even according to the Rabanan.
D. Zupnik