hebrew
1)

Since when is a woman who inherits forbidden to marry into a different tribe than that of her father?

1.

Rashi (on Pasuk 27:7), Ramban and Targum Yonasan: The prohibition of marrying into a different tribe ("Lo Sisov Nachalah") 1 was restricted to that generation exclusively. 2


1

Refer to 36:2:1:1.

2

Ramban (citing Bava Basra, 120a): B'nos Tzelofchad were the only daughters in that generation who inherited, which explains why they were the only family to lodge a complaint.

2)

Why was the Torah not similarly concerned regarding an heiress who was already married, or a woman whose father or brothers would die later (leaving behind no sons) after she already married into a different tribe?

1.

Ramban #1: The Torah was only concerned about something that was rectifiable, which those cases were not. And it did not want to change the laws of inheritance in such a case by prohibiting her husband or her son from inheriting her.

2.

Ramban #2: Pasuk 5 and Pasuk 6 are talking about two different Mitzvos. 1 Pasuk 5 is a prohibition against an heiress marrying into a different tribe, whereas Pasuk 6 teaches that if a woman married into a different tribe and then inherited property, her sons or husband do not inherit her. 2


1

Ramban: Both of which only applied to that generation.

2

Ramban: Rather, the property goes to her blood relatives.

3)

Why was "Lo Sisov Nachalah" said to that generation. What is the reason?

1.

Ramban: The Torah was concerned that the portions of the tribes should not get mixed up even as they were dividing the land. 1


1

Ramban: And it extended it to the whole generation because the exact time of distribution was not yet known.

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