From where do we learn the prohibition against cursing anybody who is not a Cheresh?
Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing Toras Kohanim): From the Pasuk in Shemos (22:27) " ... be'Amcha Lo Se'or", 'Kol she'be'Amcha'.
Ramban #2 (citing Sanhedrin, 66a): The Torah mentions a judge and a king in Shemos (22:26) and a Cheresh here, automatically including those who are in between.
Ramban #3: Refer to 19:14:2:3.
Rashbam: The Torah only mentions "Cheresh" because it is normally a Cheresh that one curses, since he cannot hear and will therefore not retaliate, but it really incorporates everybody.
Then why does the Torah mention specifically a Cheresh?
Rashi and Ramban #1 (citing Toras Kohanim): To restrict the prohibition to cursing who is alive, to preclude cursing a dead person. 1
Ramban #2: Refer to 19:14:1:2.
Ramban #3: The Torah specifies a Cheresh here to teach us that that it is even forbidden to curse a Cheresh who cannot hear and who will therefore not become angry, 2 how much more so may one not curse someone whom one causes anger and embarrassment.
What are the implications of "Lifnei Iver Lo Siten Michshol"?
Rashi: It is a prohibition against giving bad advice to someone who is blind to the facts.
Seforno: It means literally that one should not cause a blind man harm by placing a stumbling-block in front of him. 1
Why does the Torah mention specifically a blind man?
Rashi: Because, it is speaking about someone who is metaphorically blind. 1
Ramban: Because it is the way of people to take advantage of people who are the most gullible and to mislead them 2
And why does the Pasuk insert "ve'Yareisa me'Elokecha" here?