hebrew
1)

From where do we learn the prohibition against cursing anybody who is not a Cheresh?

1.

Rashi (from Toras Kohanim): From the Pasuk in Shemos (22:27) "... be'Amcha Lo Se'or", 'Kol she'be'Amcha 1 '.

2.

Ramban, Moshav Zekenim (both citing Sanhedrin, 66a): The Torah mentions a judge and a king 2 in Shemos (22:26) and a Cheresh here, automatically including those who are in between.

3.

Refer to 19:14:2:3.

4.

Rashbam: The Torah only mentions "Cheresh" because it is normally a Cheresh that one curses, since he cannot hear and will therefore not retaliate, but it really incorporates everybody.


1

Moshav Zekenim: This is one who acts like your nation. One must curse a Rasha. One who mentions a Rasha and does not curse him transgresses an Aseh - "v'Shem Resha'im Yirkav" (Mishlei 10:7). We find that David and Yirmeyah cursed Resha'im.

2

Ramban, Moshav Zekenim: The Torah mentions judges and kings because people tend to curse them when they think that they ruled against them unfairly.

2)

Why does the Torah mention specifically a Cheresh?

1.

Rashi (from Toras Kohanim): To restrict the prohibition to cursing who is alive, to preclude cursing a dead person.

2.

Refer to 19:14:1:2,4.

3.

Ramban #1, Moshav Zekenim #1: The Torah specifies a Cheresh here to teach us that that it is even forbidden to curse a Cheresh who cannot hear and who will therefore not become angry, how much more so may one not curse one who hears and is ashamed, and gets upset!

4.

Ramban #2, Moshav Zekenim #2: Because it is the way of people to curse the deaf (and cause the blind to stumble, at the end of this verse), for the victim is unaware.

3)

What are the implications of "Lifnei Iver Lo Siten Michshol"?

1.

Rashi: It is a prohibition against giving bad advice 1 to someone who is metaphorically blind 2 (ignorant about the matter), e.g. Reuven advises Shimon to sell his field in order to purchase a donkey with the proceeds - because Reuven wants the field. 3

2.

Seforno, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan 4 : It means literally that one should not cause a blind man harm by placing a stumbling-block in front of him. 5

3.

Sefer ha'Chinuch (232): It is giving bad advice, which includes helping people to sin.

4.

Moshav Zekenim #1: This includes feeding someone food forbidden to him. However, one may greet him, due to Darchei Shalom.

5.

Moshav Zekenim #2: This includes deceiving someone, even a Nochri. However, if the 'victim' deceived himself, it is permitted (Chulin 94a).


1

Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan however, translate the Pasuk literally.

2

Moshav Zekenim, Ba'al ha'Turim: "Michshol" is written Chaser (without a Vov) to teach even if it is not a [physical] stumbling-block.

3

Mesilas Yesharim (Perek 11): We do not discuss fools, who give a counsel that is overtly bad, rather, Chachamim to do evil. He makes it appear advantageous for his friend, but ultimately it is bad for him and good for the one who advises him.

4

Refer also to Devarim, 27:18:1:3.

5

Adding causing damage to the list of harming one's fellow-Jew (Refer to 19:12:2:2). Refer also to 19:15:1:2*.

4)

Why does the Pasuk insert "v'Yareisa me'Elokecha" here?

1.

Rashi: Because nobody other than Hashem knows the motivation behind the advice that Reuven gives Shimon. 1


1

Therefore the Torah warns him that Hashem knows - and will punish him.

5)

And why does the Pasuk insert "ve'Yareisa me'Elokecha" here?

1.

Rashi: Because nobody other than Hashem knows the motivation behind the advice that Reuven gives Shimon. 1


1

Therefore the Torah warns him that Hashem knows- and will punish him.

6)

Why does it say "Ani Hashem" here?

1.

Hadar Zekenim (13): A parable for this is a king who passed a place where taxes are collected. He commanded his servants to pay for him. Even though it is all his, others will learn from him. Also here, people will learn from Hashem and distance from Gezel (mentioned in the previous verse)!

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