hebrew
1)

What does the Torah mean when it writes "v'Yadav Lo Shataf ba'Mayim"?

1.

Rashi (from Chulin, 106a): It means that as long as the Zav has not immersed his whole body, he remains Tamei. 1

2.

Ramban: It is as if the Torah had written "anything that the Zav touches with his hands before he has rendered them Tahor by immersing (his body), is Tamei...

3.

Rashbam: It is a discreet way 2 of saying that if the Zav has not scrubbed 3 the flesh around the Amah, to clean it from the Zivus that is stuck to it, 4 he remains Tamei.


1

Even after his Zivus has terminated and he has counted seven clean days (Rashi).

2

Like we find in Mishlei, 30:20 and in Shoftim, 3:24 (Rashbam).

3

As implied by the word "Shataf" (See for example, Vayikra 6:21 and Yeshayah, 28:2 [Rashbam]).

4

Refer to 15:3:2:1.

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

2)

Rashi writes that "v'Yadav Lo Shataf" means that he did not immerse his whole body. If so why did it mention "hands"?

1.

Rashi (from Toras Kohanim and Zavim, 4:5): this teaches that open parts of the body - like hands - must touch the water, but parts of the body that are hidden (such as underneath the arm-pits) need not.

2.

Ramban: Refer to 15:11:1:2. .

3)

Rashi writes that "Shataf" refers to Tevilah. Why did the Torah call it Shetifah (rinsing)?

1.

Ramban, Moshav Zekenim: This teaches that the Rechitzah (Tevilah) is with rinsing and scrubbing to remove Chatzitzos.

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