Having said "Al Tashcheis Amcha ve'Nachalascha" - in Pasuk 26 - why does Moshe repeat "ve'Heim Amcha ve'Nachalasecha" here?
R. Bachye: With reference to 9:26:2:1 and note ? To raise the point that, since Hashem took Yisrael out of Egypt with these two Names, if e now declines to forgive them, the Egyptians will claim that He killed them in the desert because He was unable to defeat the Cana?anim ? thereby casting doubt on all the miracles He had wrought and creating a Chillul Hashem.
Ha'amek Davar: In Pasuk 26, he was giving a reason as to why Hashem should have pity on them and not annihilate them; whereas here he is giving a reason as to why He should not tolerate the accusation that Hashem hates them - save them just as a person would not allow others to slander one's errant son, even when he himself is punishing him.
Why did Moshe need to say "ve'Heim Amcha ve'Nachalasecha"?
Da'as Zekenim, Rosh and Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 24): To counter Hashem's statement "Lech Reid ki Shicheis Amcha" (referring to Yisrael as Moshe's nation). 1


