Why did Moshe add here "u'mi'Sin'aso osam" - which he did not mention by the Meraglim in Sh'lach-L'cha, Bamidbar 14:26?
Ramban: He mentioned it here with reference to taking them out of Mitzrayim - because when they worshipped the Eigel they were still close to Egypt and he was referring to how people would view the fact that Hashem took them out of Egypt in order to kill them 1 because He hated them. 2 This was not applicable however, by the Meraglim, when they were already on the verge of entering Eretz Cana'an, and only the argument that Hashem would be unable to take them into the land was applicable.
If Hashem hated Yisrael enough to kill them, surely He would not want to give to them Eretz Kena'an. If so, how would this show His inability to take them into the land?
Da'as Zekenim, Hadar Zekenim (24), Rosh (21): "Umi'Sin'aso" is like Oh mi'Sin'aso; it is an alternative reason.