What are the implications of "min ha'Kodesh Yeshalem"?
Sifra #1: It implies that he is Chayav to pay Hekdesh even if it is less than a Shaveh P'rutah. 1
Sifra #2: The entire implies that the sinner is obligated to pay whichever Hekdesh he benefited from ? Kodshei Mizbe'ach or Kodshei Bedek ha'Bayis.
Torah Temimah: Even though regarding Hedyot one is not Chayav to repay less than a Shaveh P'rutah. See Torah Temimah, note 97.
How much is the Chomesh that he must add?
Bava Metzi'sa, 66a: "Chomesh" means a fifth portion ? a fifth from the outside, which is equivalent to a quarter of the amount that he benefitted from. 1
Bava Metzi'a, (Ibid.): If he benifitted four Sela'im, then plus the fifth adds up to five Sela'im.
Why does the Torah write "ve'ha'Kohen Yechaper alav" and not the more common "Vechiper alav ha'Kohen"?
Why does the sinner give the money to the Kohen and not directly to the Gizbar (the treasurer)?
Rashbam: The Pasuk is referring to the Asham - that he must give to the Kohen to atone for him ? not the money.
Oznayim la'Torah: Because the Kohen is not permitted to bring his Asham until the sinner has paid. Consequently, seeing as the sinner is obligated to give the money to him, he will know whether he is permitted to bring his Asham or not.
Why does the Torah add "be'Eil ha'Asham" (See Torah Temimah, note 101)?
Bava Kama, 111a: To teach us that the sinner does not attain atonement until he has both paid his due and also brought his Korban.
What are the implications of the term "be'Eil ha'Asham"?
Bava Kama, 11a: (Bearing in mind that "ha'Asham" here mesans the 'principle' the amount that he owes) it implies that the Korban is secondary to the payment, and the payment must precede the Asham - Torah Temimah) Consequently,If he brought the Asham first, he is not Yotzei.
What if he did not pay the extra fifth?
Bava Kama 111a: The sequence "be'Eil ha'Asham Venislach lo" implies that the principle and the Asham are crucial to the Kaparah but not the fifth.
