What are the implications of "Zeh ha'Davar"?
Since when is a woman who inherits forbidden to marry into a different tribe than that of her father?
Rashi (on 27:7), Ramban and Targum Yonasan: The prohibition of marrying into a different tribe ("Lo Sisov Nachalah") 1 was restricted to that generation only. 2
Refer to 36:2:1:1 & 36:6:0.1:1.
Ramban (citing Bava Basra, 120a): At the time, the B'nos Tzelofchad were the only women in that generation who inherited, which explains why they were the only family to lodge a complaint.
How will we reconcile "la'Tov be'Eineihen Tih'yenah le'Nashim" (implying anyone they fancied) with "ve'Lo Sisov Nachalah" in Pauk 7?
Bava Basra, 120a: By interpreting "Lo Sisov Nachalah" regarding the B'nos Tz'lofchad, not as a command, 1 but as a piece of advice, 2
Oznayim la'Torah (citing the Rashbam in Bava Basra, 120a): The Pasuk is referring to the advice that Hashem - the Father of orphans - gave the B'nos T'lofchad, 3 who had no parents to advise them, that their cousins were the most suitable men.
Why was the Torah not similarly concerned regarding an heiress who was already married, or a woman whose father or brothers would die later (leaving behind no sons) after she already married into a different tribe?
Ramban #1: The Torah was only concerned about something that was rectifiable, which those cases were not. And it did not want to change the laws of inheritance in such a case by prohibiting her husband or her son from inheriting her.
Why was "Lo Sisov Nachalah" said to that generation?