1)

Having promised Eretz Yisrael to Yaakov (see 28:13), why did Hashem see fit to repeat it here? And why does it repeat "Lecha Etnenah... Eten"?

1.

Ramban #1: Here Hashem equated Yaakov to Avraham and Yitzchak, who were promised Eretz Yisrael with a Shevu'ah. 1 Above, Hashem had promised it to Yaakov without a Shevu'ah. 2

2.

Ramban #2: The repetition of the prophecy is considered a Shevu'ah.

3.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: Hashem was appointing Yaakov a co-owner of the land alongside Avraham and Yitzchak; all would bequeath the land to their children.

4.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: He was promising the land to Yaakov, to preclude Eisav.

1

Refer to 35:11:1:2*.

2

Ramban: Then, sin can cause that it not be fulfilled.

2)

?ve?es ha?Aretz Nasati ? Etein es ha?Aretz. Why does the Torah repeat the word ?es ha?Aretz?

1.

Seforno: To incorporate all the other lands in the area (?Kol Kadur ha?Aretz? 1 - Peirush citing the Seforno), 2 as Hashem said to Ya?akov in Vayeitzei, 28:14?u?Faratzta Yamah va?Keidmah, ve?Tzafonah, Vanegbah?.

1

Though this does not appear in our version of the Seforno.

2

It is not clear which lands the Seforno is referring to

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