What was Hashem referring to when He said "Gam es ha'Davar ha'Zeh ... E'eseh"?
Rashi: He was referring to Moshe's last request - that Hashem should never rest His Shechinah on any other nation. 1
Ramban: He agreed to go with Yisrael directly. 2
Rashbam: Besides aquiescing to Moshe's request to go with Yisrael - which He had already agreed to do, He also accepted his request to make him stand out above all of Yisrael. 3
Moshav Zekenim #1: He meant that He would be with Yisrael with affection and perform wonders for them.
Moshav Zekenim #2, Hadar Zekenim (in Pasuk 14), Da'as Zekenim #1 (in Pasuk 15): He meant that He would make His Midos known to Moshe (thereby dispelling Moshe's concern about "Pen Achelcha ba'Derech" - Hadar Zekenim and Da'as Zekenim).
Da'as Zekenim #2 (in Pasuk 15): To allow all of Yisrael to enjoy the radiance of the Shechinah.
Seifer ha"Ikarim (3:20): He was referring to Moshe's request "Veniflinu Ani ve'Amecha" - to place the Shechinah only on Yisrael, and not to appoint another Navi at his level. 4
Rashi: And as for Bil'am, who appears to have experienced prophecy, it was not via a revelation of the Shechinah, but as the Pasuk describes in Bamidbar (24:4) "Nofel u'Geluy Einayim" - with reference to a vision that did not come to him via the Shechinah (See Torah Temimah there), which the Pasuk in Iyov (4:12) describes as 'a stolen prophecy'.
After the second set of forty days, after instructing Moshe to carve out the second Luchos (Ramban).
Seifer ha"Ikarim (3:20): Which we also know from the Pasuk in Vezos ha'Berachah Devarim, 34:10 "ve'Lo Kam be'Yisrael ke'Moshe Od".
Why did Moshe find favor with Hashem?
Rashi (in Mishlei, 28:23): Because he rebuked Yisrael to go in the ways of Hashem.
What does "va'Eda'acha be'Shem" mean?
Rashi #1 (in Bereishis 18:19): It means "I loved (endeared) you by name". 1
Rashi #2 (in Tehilim, 55:14) and Targum Onkelos: It means It means "I made you great by name". 2
Targum Yonasan: It means "I appointed you with a good name".
