Why does the Torah need to insert "Lo Yevaker ... "?
Rashi: Because with regard to other Korbanos, one should pick the best of one's flock, 1 the Torah needs to teach us that this does not apply to Ma'aser Beheimah, and that, should the tenth animal turn out to be a Ba'al-Mum, one is not permitted to swap it for a Beheimah without a blemish. 2
Rashi: As the Torah writes in Devarim 12:11 "ve'Chol Mivchar Nidreichem."
Rashi: Although if it is a Ba'al-Mum, it cannot be brought on the Mizbe'ach.
Although it cannot be brought on the Mizbe'ach. See Torah Temimah, note 210.
In fact, one is permitted to render one's entire flock Ba'alei-Mum before passing them through the pen. See Torah Temimah, citing Bechoros, 36b, and note 209.
What will be the Din if the owner transgressed and arranged for the best animal to come out nunber ten?
Yerushalmi Rosh Hashanah, 1:1: Bedieved, the Ma'aser takes effect. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 211.
Seeing as Ma'aser Beheimah was included in the Din of Temurah - in Pasuk 10 - why does the Torah repeat it here?
Temurah, 13a: To teach us that only Korbanos that are similar to Ma'aser Beheimah (which is a Korban Yachid,obligatory and does not apply to Shutfim) are subject to the Din of Temurah - to preclude a. a Korban Tzibur, b. a Korban that is not obligatory,
1
See Torah Temimah, note 213.
What is the significance of the comparison of Ge'ulah to Temurah ("Vehayah Hu u'Semuraso ... ")?
What are the connotatons of "Lo Yiga'el"?
Moshav Zekenim (in Pasuk 30) #1: It means that if Ma'aser Behemah obtained a blemish, it is not redeemed like a Shelamim, and although the Kedushah is not transferred on to the money, the owner eats it like Chulin. 1
Moshav Zekenim (in Pasuk 30) #2: It means that, like Charamim, about which the Torah wrote in Pasuk 28 "Lo Yimacher ve'Lo Yiga'el", it may not be redeemed or sold. 2
Moshav Zekenim #3: It means that, even if it obtained a blemish and the owner redeemed it, it does not go out to Chulin to shear or to work with. 3
