Yehudahat is the definition of "Cherem"?
Why does the Torah write here "Kol Cherem la'Shem", and in Bamidbar 18:14 "Kol Cherem b'Yisrael Lecha Yih'yeh"?
Rashi #1 (citing Erchin, 28b): The current Pasuk refers to Stam Charamim; the Pasuk in Korach, to Cherm-i Kohanim - where the owner specifically stated 'Harei Zeh Cherem le'Kohen'. 1
Rashi #2 (citing Erchin, 28b): The Pasuk in Korach refers to Stam Charamim 2 , the current Pasuk to Cherm-i Gavohah - where the owner specifically stated 'Harei Zeh Cherem la'Gavohah'.
This also appears to be the opinion of Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan (See Na'ar Yonasan in Bamidbar, 18:14). R. Yehudah (Nedarim 2:4) - this is in Galil, where people do not know about Chermei Kohanim. In Yehudah, Stam Cherem is for Kohanim.
R. Yehudah (Nedarim 2:4): This is in Yehudah. In Galil, where people do not know about Chermei Kohanim, Stam Cherem is for Bedek ha'Bayis.
What are the implications of "Lo Yimacher v'Lo Yiga'el"?
Rashi: According to those who say 'Stam Charamim, le'Kohanim', it goes directly to the Kohanim; whereas according to those who maintain 'Stam Charamim le'Bedek ha'Bayis', it goes directly to Bedek ha'Bayis. 1
What are the implications of "Kol Cherem Kodesh Kodshim hu la'Shem "?
Rashi #1: This is the source of those who hold 'Stam Kodshim le'Bedek ha'Bayis'.
Rashi #2: Those who hold 'Stam Cherem le'Kohanim' learn from here that Chermei Kohanim take effect on Kodshei Kodshim and Kodshim Kalim. If it is a Neder ('Harei alai'), he pays its value; if it is a Nedavah ('Harei Zu'), he pays its Tovas Hana'ah (Erchin 28b) 1
Rashi #3 (in Nedarim, 18b): That is the reason why Charamim are not subject to redemption.
See Sifsei Chachamim.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that one opinion holds that Stam Charamim are to Kohanim. How can he explain "Cherem la'Shem"?
Refer to 27:28:4:2.
Moshav Zekenim citing Zar. Menachem: Initially Cherem is to Hashem, and Kohanim acquire from His table.