1)
Seeing as the Dinim of a Sadeh Mikneh are largely similar to those of a Sedeh Achuzah, why does the Torah present them independently?
1.
Rashi and Rashbam: Because whereas, in the event that the owner does not redeem a Sadeh Achuzah until the Yovel, it goes to the Kohanim, a Sadeh Mikneh reverts to the owner. 1
1
Rashi: This is because the purchaser does not have the authority to declare Hekdesh the field that he purchased - only the Peiros up until the beginning of the Yovel year (Rashbam).
2)
Why does the Torah add (the otherwise superfluous) phrase "asher Lo mi'Sedei Achuzaso"?
