What are the implications of "Veyatza me'Imach"?
Sifra: It implies that the master is not permitted to make the Eved Ivri work in a different kind of location than where he lives ? to work in the town if he lives in a village or vice-versa. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 213.
Since the son of the Eved Ivri was not sold, why does the Torah write "Hu u'Banav Imo"?
Rashi: From the Pasuk we can extrapolate that throughout the term of Avdus, the master is obligated to feed his children 1 , and when his contract ends, this obligation falls away.
Rosh: Rashi (in Sh'mos 21:3) learned from "ve'Yatz'ah Ishto Imo" that the master must feed the Eved Ivri's wife and children. Really, that Pasuk only mentions his wife, and our Pasuk, his children. See also Torah Temimah, note 214.
Seeing as the Torah has already informed us that a Mocher Atzmo and a Nirtza go out in the Yovel, what does the Torah mean when it writes "Veshav el Mishpachto"? To whom is it referring?
Kidushin, 15a: It refers to a Ganav whom Beis-Din sold two or three years before the Yovel, who goes free when the Yovel arrives. 1
Kidushin, 21b: It implies that the Eved Ivri is reinstated to his former Chazakah. Consequenly, an Eved Ivri Kohen cannot have his ear pierced, since it would render him a Ba'al-Mum and no longer fit to return to his previous Chazakah - performing the Avodah. 2
Bava Metzi'a, 71: It teaches us that a Ger, who has no family to which to return, cannot be sold as an Eved Ivri. 3
Makos, 13a: It teache us that he returns to the status of his family, but not to the position of Chashivus that he previously held (he reverts to the Kehunah but to his position as Nasi or Rosh Beis-Din - Torah Temimah).
What is the Pasuk mean when it writes "ve'el Achuzas Avosav Yashuv"?
Rashi: It means that the Eved Ivri regains his original status, and one is not permitted to taunt him (because he was an Eved).
Moshav Zekenim (citing the Ri): It is the source for a Nirtza to go free in the Yovel. 1
Rashi (in Pasuk10) learnt this from "ve'Ish el Mishpachto."
Having written "Veshav el Mishpachto", why does the Torah add "ve'el Achuzas Avosav Yashuv"?
Refer to 25:41:2:1 & 2.
Oznayim la'Torah: Bearing in mind that his fields have been barren since his sale and contain no produce to collect, the Torah is saying that for now, he returns to his family, who will help him out with loans in the interim, and after the Yovel, he will be able to return to work on his fields until they produce theharvest in the following year.
