What does the Torah mean when it writes "ke'Sachir ke'Soshav Yih'yeh Imach"?


Rashi: It means that you should employ him to work in the field like other hired workers, or to work as a craftsman. 1


Ramban #1: "Sachir" is a hired worker,"Toshav", 2 someone who comes to sojourn with you and who works for you voluntarily like a Sachir. 3


Ramban #2 (citing the Sifra): 'Just as a Sachir is paid on a daily basis 4 so too, should you pay the Eved Ivri on a daily basis; 5 and just as one does for a Toshav whatever is beneficial for him 6 and may not taunt him 7 so too, should you do whatever is beneficial for the eved Ivri ('Imach be'Ma'achal, Imach be'Mishtah, Imach bi'Kesus Nekiyah (fine clothes)' and not taunt him..


Seforno: It means that you should treat him like a Sachir (a hired worker) - If he is acquired for six years, you should treat him like a short-term Sachir (for one year), whereas if he is acquired until the Yovel, you should treat him like a long-term Sachir (a Toshav - for many years).


Who one cannot force to work like an Eved Cana'ani, since, unlike an Eved Ivri, they are permitted to retract in the middle of the day (Oznayim la'Torah).


Both a Sachir and a Toshav are free men, who are not made to work as Avadim.


Ramban: Like Ya'akov worked for Lavan (See Vayeitzei, Bereishis 29:15).


Ki Seitzei, Devarim, 24:15.


Refer to 25:40:151:1-3 and the note there.


Ramban, Ibid. 24:17.


Ki Seitzei, Devarim 24:17,


Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "Yih'yeh Imach"?


Kesuvos, 43a: To teach us that the master may not say to his Eved Ivri 1 'Work for me and (sustain yourslf, because) I will not sustain you!'


Seee Torah Temimah, note 209.


Bearing in mind that an Eved Ivri works for six years (as we learned at the beginning of Mishpatim), what does the Torah mean when it writes "Ad Sh'nas ha'Yovel Ya'avod Imach"?


Rashi: It means that, should the Yovel fall in the middle of the six years, his master is obligated to release him. 1


Erchin, 29a: To teach us that the Dinim of Eved Ivri only apply when the Yovel is in effect.


See Sifsei Chachamim.


What are the implications of the word "Ya'avid Imach"?


Sifra: To prohibit the master from making him work for the public, even if he had previously been a public bath-attendant or a baker. 1


See Torah Temimah, note 212.


Seeing as the master already paid for all his labor when he bought him, how can we say (See 25:40:1:3) that an Eved Ivri is paid on the same day - like a Sachir?


Korban Aharon #1 (on the Sifra): Rashi (treat him like other hired workers who work in the field, or craftsmen) answered this. 1 If one employs an Eved Ivri for work he is not obligated to do, such as working in the field or to perform the work of a craftsman, one must pay him each day, like other hired workers.


Korban Aharon #2 citing R. Hillel (on the Sifra): When you send him free and give Ha'anakah (gifts), give them the same day, like one must pay a worker the same day. This is difficult.


Korban Aharon #3: Perhaps the money that one pays to buy an Eved Ivri, he must pay it that day.


Rashi is ambiguous. Perhaps Rashi teaches that one may demand from an Eved Ivri to work like other hired workers who work in the field, or craftsmen! (PF)


The Sifra learns from "Yih'yeh Imach" that your Eved Ivri eats and drinks [the same food] as you. The Gemara expounds this from "Ki Tov Lo Imach" (Devarim 15:16)!


Moshav Zekenim #1 citing R. Avraham and R. Eliezer mi'Metz: The text of the Sifra is correct. "Ki Tov Lo Imach" is not a command, and it discusses a Nirtza!


Moshav Zekenim #2 citing his Rebbi: The Mechilta (of R. Yishmael, Nezikin 2 DH Ahavti) learns [like the Gemara] from "Ki Tov Lo Imach." 1


He did not answer the objection of R. Avraham and R. Eliezer mi'Mitz (refer to 25:40:152:1)! Perhaps he brings the Mechilta to show that some truly expound from there. Often the Gemara is not precise, and cites a Pasuk that seems to teach a law, but the Mechilta would not do so! (PF)

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