Why did Bil'am say B'no Be'or instead of 'ben Be'or'?
Rashi #1: It is synonymous with 'ben Be'or'. 1
Rashi #2 (citing Tanchuma) and Targum Yonasan: He referred to Be'or as his son, because he was inferior to him in prophecy 2 ? Manah ben P'ras. 3
Hadar Zekenim: He referred to his father Be'or as his son, because Bil'am was a prophet, but Be'or was not. 4
Why did Bilam refer to himself as 'Gever'?
Ba'al ha'Turim: a. because just as a rooster' ? which is also called 'Gever' - is the most promiscuous of all creatures, 1 so too was he the most promiscuous of people; 2 b. because like a rooster, he was able to discern the exact time when Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu was angry, 3 and c. because, like a rooster stands on one leg so too, was he lame in one leg. 4
What are the conotations of "Shesum ha'Ayin"?
Rashi #1: It means that his eye had fallen out of its socket 1 which therefore gave the appearance of being open. 2
Rashi #2 (citing Targum Onkelos), Ramban #1 and Rashbam: It means that his eye was open 3 (that he saw well 4 with one eye) - implying that he was blind in the other.
Ramban #2: It is a cross between two words 'Shisui Mah' - 'He perceived (in prophecy) whatever he wanted to perceive. 5
Targum Yonasan: It means that his eyes were open - things that were hidden from other prophets were revealed to him. 6
Rashi (citing Nidah, 31a): This was a punishment for his thoughts on the Pasuk "u'Mispar es Rova Yisrael". Refer to 23:10:2:5.
Rashi: See Avodah-Zarah, 69a.
Ramban and Rashbam: As in Avodah-Zarah, 69a. See Torah Temimah, note 2.
Rashbam: 'Visions of Hashem'.
Ramban: As in Bo Sh'mos, 10:1 - "Lema'an Shisi es Ososai Eileh b'Kirbo".
Why did Bil'am only praise himself during the current Nevu'ah and during the following one, but not during the first four Nevu'os (or B'rachos)?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because there he prophesied with "Koh Amar Hashem", which meant that he was obligated to repeat what Hashem had said without adding anything of his own, 1 which was not the case here, and which therefore allowed him to add even what Hashem hsd not told him to say.
See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'u'Ne'um ha'Gever sh'sum ha'Ayin' #1.
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that one eye had fallen out of its socket, or he was blind in one eye (Nidah 31a). But the Torah writes (in Pasuk 2 & 5) "va'Yisa Bil'am es Einav" and "u'Geluy Einayim"?
R. Chaim Paltiel: Before he wanted to curse Yisrael, he saw with both eyes. 1 After he wanted to curse Yisrael, Hashem blinded one eye. 2
Pasuk 2 teaches that he saw with both eyes. He already wanted to curse Yisrael from when Balak's first men arrived? on his journey to Mo'av, and while building forty-two Mizb'chos! He must mean 'before he wanted to curse Yisrael 'through Ayin ha'Ra?'; this he did only now. He is called G'luy Einayim after this. Refer to 24:4:2:1-3. (PF).
Not both eyes, because the Navi writes in Zecharyah 2:12 "Ha'Noge'a bachem Noge'a be'Vavas Eino" (singular).
Rashi writes that Bil'am and Balak were greater than their fathers, like Manah ben P'ras. What does this mean?
Mizrachi: Refer to 24:3:1:2*.
Riva: Maneh is a sixtieth of a P'ras; the son was sixty times greater.
