hebrew
1)

Why did Bil'am speak so abruptly to Balak "Kum Balak ... !"?

1.

Rashi: He did so to counter Balak's taunt. 1


1

Refer to 23:17:2:1.

2)

Why did he refer to him as "B'no Tzipor"?

1.

Rashi #1: He called him 'the son of Tzipor', 1 as if it had written 'ben Tzipor' (without the 'Vav' in "B'no"). 2

2.

Rashi #2 (24:3): He referred to him as his son, because he (Tzipor) was inferior to Balak in kingship. 3


1

Ha'Emek Davar (Harchev Davar Bereishis 48:8): It is humiliating to be called so, as if he does not have his own name (Rashi Tehilim 4:3). One who hates someone does not call him by his name. E.g. Sha'ul called David "Ben Yishai" (and was furious at Yehonason, who called him "David" (Shmuel 1:20:30). Bil'am says about himself "Bno Be'or" (24:3), i.e. in addition to his name. Here, "Bno Tzipor" is in place of Balak's name.

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