1)

Why does the Torah repeat "Mo'adei Hashem"?

1.

Rashi: Pasuk 2 is referring to arranging an Ibur Shanah (a leap-year), 1 and the current Pasuk, to Kidush ha'Chodesh - the Mitzvah on Beis-Din to sanctify each month. 2

2.

Ramban: Refer to 23:3:1:3*.

3.

R. Bachye: "Eileh" implies permanence - to teach us that the Yamim-Tovim will last forever, as long the world exists in its physical form. 3 4

1

See also R. Bachye citing Pirkei de'R. Eliezer, who describes in detail 'Ibur Shanah' - which could only be performed by the Sanhedrin in Eretz Yisrael - though he Gemara in Rosh Hashanah 25a rules that if the Gadol ha'Dor is in Chutz la'Aretz, then he should arrange Ibur Shanah.

2

Refer to Sh'mos, 12:2:1-6 where many details connected with these issues are discussed in detail.

3

See R. Bachye.

4

R. Bachye: And it is about them that the Pasuk writes in Tehilim 111:8 "Semuchim la'Ad le'Olam Asuyim be'Emes ve'Yashar".

2)

How will we reconcile "Eileh Mo'adei Hashem" with "asher Tikr'u osam (Atem)"?

1.

Yerushalmi Rosh Hashanah, 1:3: 'Until now they were My festivals; from now on they are your festivals!' 1

1

Seee Torah Temimah, note 13/

3)

What are the connotations of the word "be'Mo'adam'?

1.

Rosh Hashanah, 21b: "be'Mo'ado" and "be'Moa'dam" always imply even on Shabbos, 1 only the Rabbanan decreed on all months except for Nisan and Tishri. 2

1

See Torah Temimah, note 15 and Oznayim la'Torah.

2

See Torah Temimah, note 14, and Torah Temimah, citing Rosh Hashanah, 21b and note 17.

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