What are the connotations of the word "Veha'avadti"?
Rashi: It teaches us that whenever the Torah mentions Kareis it means total destruction. 1
Oznayim la'Torah: The Torah inserts it here - in connection with Melachah, and not above, in the prevous Pasuk - in connecting with eating, because, as opposed to someone who eats, which he presumably does because he is hungry, someone who performs Melachah, does so, either to anger Hashem or due to a lack of Emunah, which deserves a more severe punishment.
See Torah Temimah, note 94.
"Veha'avadti es ha'Nefesh ha'Hi". Why does the Torah insert the word "Veha'avadti" here - in connection with Melachah but not in the previous Pasuk - in connecting with eating?
Refer to 23:30:1:1 and note. 2. Seforno and Oznayim la'Torah: because, as opposed to someone who eats, which he presumably does because he is hungry, someone who performs Melachah, does so, either to anger Hashem or due to a lack of Emunah, which deserves a more severe punishment. 1
This implies that Kareis does not mean total destruction and that "Veha'avad'ti es ha'Nedesh ha'Hi is worse than Kareis. See Ibn Ezra and see answer 1.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) words words "es ha'Nefesh ha'Hi"?
Sifra: Refer to Acharei Mos 16:29:2:3.
