hebrew
1)

Why does the Torah see fit to insert "Vehaysah lachem le'Chukas Olam"?

1.

Seforno: Even when the Beis ha'Mikdash is standing and the Avodah is in effect, the Mitzvah of Shevisah from Melachah and that of fasting still apply. 1


1

To preclude from the notion that they come to replace the Avodah, and as long as the Avodah is in effect, they are not necessary.

2)

What does "Te'anu es Nafshoseichem" include?

1.

Ramban (citing Ibn Ezra): Wherever the Pasuk uses the expression 'Inuy Nefesh', it refers to fasting, 1 and not to inflicting wounds upon oneself. 2

2.

Targum Yonasan: It includes desisting from eating and drinking, and Hana'ah of bathing, [anointing with] cleansers, wearing shoes and intimacy. 3


1

See Ibn Ezra.

2

As the Kara'ites - may their names be blotted out - explain (Ramban).

3

Chefetz Yehonason: The She'altos (167) and several Rishonim hold that all the afflictions are mid'Oraisa, Ha'Emek She'elah asks, if so, how could Chachamim permit a king and Kalah to wash the face, anointing for lesions, and a Yoledes to wear shoes? Targum Yonason explains that the Torah forbids only when these are done for pleasure. (I do not know why the Targum says "Tamruka" (cleansers), unless we will say that everything used to anoint, it cleanses. - PF)

3)

Why does the Torah write "ha'Ezrach"?

1.

Sukah 28a-b: "Ha'Ezrach" comes to include women in the prohibition of Tosefes Iruy (also women must afflict themselves some additional time before the day starts and after it ends).

4)

Why does the Torah write "ha'Ezrach"?

1.

Torah Temimah (citing Succah, 28a): "ha'Ezrach" comes to include women in the prohibition of Melachah. 1


1

See Torah Temimah. It is not clear however, why it is necessary to include women in a regular Lo Sa'aseh?

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