1)

Why does the Torah mention specifically the "two lambs of the Shelamim"?

1.

Rashi #1 (on Pasuk 20): To preclude the bull and the rams from the Tenufah 1 (which is performed whilst the lambs are still alive). 2

2.

Rashi #2 (in Pesachim, 13b): Because the Heter to eat the Sh'tei ha'Lechem is dependent upon the two lambs - which are waved together with it - and not upon the other Korbanos mentioned in the previous Pasuk.

1

Rashi (in Pesachim, 13b): It is the Shechitah of the two lambs which sanctifies the Sh'tei ha'Lechem and which permit the Kohanim to eat them.

2

Rashi (in Sukah, 37b): The Kohen places the two loaves on the lambs and waves them.

2)

Why does the Torah insert the word "le'Zevach Shelamim"?

1.

Sifra: To teach us that they must be Shechted for ths sake of a Shelamim.

3)

How do we know that the Korbanos listed here are not synonymous with the Korban Musaf which the Torah discusses in Pinchas Bamidbar, 28:27?

1.

Rashi: Because the two bulls and one ram mentioned here do not tally with the one bull and two rams mentioned there. 1

2.

Because if they were, why would the Torah repeat them here ? something that it does not do by any other Yom-Tov?

1

See also Torah Temimah, citing Menachos, 45b and note 68.

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