What is the meaning of "ve'Chi Yefateh Ish ... "?
Rashi: It means that he talks her into doing what he wants.
Ramban: It means that he slyly convinces her to carry out his wishes - either via words, money or lies. 1
Though the word can also refer to convincing a person sraightforwardly (See Ramban, who elaborates at great length on the word). Both Rashi and the Ramban claim that their respective explanations coincide with that of Targum Onkelos; the latter adds that it is also synonymous with that of Targum Yonasan.
What are the implications of "Besulah"?
Kesuvos, 38a: "Besulah", 've'Lo Be'ulah' - to preclude a girl who has had relations with a man from the Din of K'nas. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 161.
What are the connotations of "Mahor Yimharenah Lo le'Ishah"?
Rashi #1, Rashbam and Targum Yonasan: It means that he should write her a Kesubah - the fifty Shekel 1 (two hundred Zuz) Kesubah 2 that a man writes for his wife who is a Besulah (and then he is obligated to marry her - Rashi). 3
Ramban: It means that he must send her gifts 4 like the gifts (Sivlonos) that a man sends his betrothed. 5
Targum Onkelos: It means that he is obligated to marry her.
Kidushin, 46a: It means that he should betroth her with the consent of her father. 6
Kesuvos, 40a: It means that he marries her - if he so wishes. 7
Refer to 22:16:0.2:1*.
The Ramban maintains that Kesubah is only mi'de'Rabbanan. However, the opinion that considers it d'Oraysa proves it from this Pasuk. Refer to 22:16:1:3.
See Torah Temimah, note 169.
With the intention of marrying her, provided the girl and her father agree. See Ramban, who elaborates on the root of the word "Mohar".
See Targum Onkelos here and in Bereishis 32:12 (Ramban).
See Torah Temimah, note 162. & 162.
As opposed to a rapist, wo is obligated to marry the girl that he raped. See Torah Temimah, note
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "le'Ishah"?
Yerushalmi Kesuvos, 3:1: To confine the Din of K'nas to a girl who is subject to Kidushin - to preclude a Shifchah Cana'anis from the realm of K'nas 1
See Torah Temimah, note 164, who elaborates.
What are the implications of the words "Mahor Yimharenah Lo le'Ishah"?
Mechilta: It implies that he may only betroth her 1 if she is permitted to him, but not if she is an Almanah to a Kohen Gadol, a Gerushah or Chalutzah to a Kohen Hedyot or a Mamazeres or a Nesinah to a Yisrael, with whom he is forbidden to live.
See Torah Temimah, note 165.
Why does the Torah not insert "ve'Lo Sih'yeh le'Ishah" like it does by a rapist?
Kesuvos, 40a: Because, as opposed to a rapist, he is not obligated to marry her - only if he agrees to. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 162.
Why does the Torah not obligate a Mefateh to marry the girl he seduced and never divorce her like it does by a rapist?
Ramban: Because, since the girl agreed to have relations with him, she is partially to blame, and a monetary K'nas will suffice. 1
See Ramban who elaborates.
Why does the Torah not insert the word "Na'arah" here, like it does by a rapist?
Ramban: It inserts it by a rapist to preclude a Bogeres, whom we might otherwise have thought is also subject to K;nas, since she was raped; whereas by Mefateh, who condescended to have relations with him, it is obvious that a Bogeres, who is no longer in her father's domain (like a Na'arah is), is not subject to K'nas.
