What is the difference between "Lo Sikom" and "Lo Sitor"?
Rashi: "Lo Sikom" refers to active revenge - where you refuse to lend him your axe because yesterday he would not lend you his scythe; 1 whereas "Lo Sitor" is where you lend him the axe, but where you also let him know that you are doing so in spite of the fact that yesterday, he refused to lend you his scythe. 2
Rashbam, Targum Onkelos and Targum Yonasan: The former means paying back evil for evil, the latter, bearing a grudge even in one's heart. 3
Ramban (citing the Sifra): The Isur of Nekimah and Netirah do not apply where Reuven owes Shimon money or an object which Shimon is able to claim in Beis-Din. See Ramban, DH 've'Inyan ha'Mekimah ve'ha'Netirah'.
Rashi (in Mishlei 17:9 - based on the Pasuk): If Reuven sins against you and you ignore the sin and neither mention it nor even let it show on your face, you will cause Reuven to love you.
See Torah Temimah, note 120. and B'al ha'Turim.
Why does the Torah juxtapose the Mitzvah of "Lo Sikom ve'Lo Sitor" to that of "Hoche'ach Tochi'ach"?
Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that 'Why did you not lend out your axe?' 1 is a Mitzvah as long as it is somebody else who is asking the question, but not if it is the person wo was refused - whose question is based on revenge, it is forbidden. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: And that explains the Gemara in Yoma, 23a, which sttes that a Talmid-Chacham who does not take revenge and bear a grudge is not a Talmid-Chacham - and the Pasuk is confined to issues concerning money - since when a Talmid-Chacham takes revenge, he does so with the intention of avenging Kavod Shamayim, not his own Kavod. See also Ba'al ha'Turim.
What are the connotations of the word "ve'Ahavta le'Re'acha Kamocha"?
K'li Yakar: It comes to preclude a Nochri, 1 with regard to whom this Mitzvah does not apply.
Oznayim la'Torah: It comes to include every fellow Jew. 2
What are the implications of "ve'Ahavta le'Re'acha Kamocha"?
Rashi and Targum Yonasan: R. Akiva referred to this as an overriding principle in the Torah - it entails not doing to one's fellow-Jew 1 anything that one would not like done to oneself. 2
Ramban #1 and Seforno: It implies that one should want for one's fellow-Jew anything that one would want for oneself if one was in his position. 3
Ramban #2 and Moshav Zekenim: To teach us the love should be unrestricted - in all areas, 4 regarding wealth, property, honor, wisdom and intelligence, and not just in some areas.
Rashbam: It implies thst it is a Mitzvah to love one's fellow-Jew provided he is indeed a fellow-Jew, but not if he is a Rasha. 5
Moshav Zekenim #1 (citing Sanhedrin 52a): The Torah is instructing Beis-Din who are carrying out the death-sentence 6 to pick a 'pleasant' death for the sinner. - to minimize the pain and disgrace as much as possible. 7
Moshav Zekenim #2 (citing Gitin 90a): "Re'acha" refers to one's wife - and the Torah is teaching us that one should love her as much as one loves oneself.
Kesuvos, 37b: It teaches us that, when carrying out the death-sentence of Cherev (death by the sword), Beis-Din should kill the sinner by the neck, 8 and by the same token, the death sentence of Sekilah should take place from a height of two people plus the sinner's own height 9 - Sanhedrin, 45a.
Kidushin, 41a: It teaches us not to betroth a woman before having seen her, 10 to avoid discovering something on her that he finds despicable and that will cause him to detest her - thereby transgressing the Asei. 11
Sanhedrin, 84b: It teaches us that a son is permitted to perform blood-letting on his father. 12
Targum Onkelos: It means literally 'You should love your fellow-Jew like yourself' (without distinction or excuse - Mesilas Yesharim).
Rashbam: Provided he is not a Rasha, whom it Pasuk is a Mitzvah to hate, as the writes in Mishlei, 8:13. Refer also to 19:18:4:1*.
See Sifsei Chachamim & refer to 19:18:3.1:2 and note #1
Ramban: Like the Pasuk writes in Shmuel 1, 20:17, about King Shaul's son Yonasan, who removed the jealousy from his heart and was happy at the prospect of David becoming king. It should be just as he would wish for himself, albeit not to the same extent as he would wish himself.
Ramban and Moshav Zekenim: It cannot be taken literally, since a. it is impossible for a person to love anybody else as much as one loves oneself, and b. R. Akiva already stated (in Bava Metzi'a, 62a) that one's own life takes precedence over somebody else's. See also Ramban DH 'Eileh ha'Mitzvos', who elaborates.
Rashbam: as the Pasuk writes in Mishlei, 8:13 'Those who fear Hashem hate evil'. See also Rashi in Mishlei, 3:30
Moshav Zekenim citing R. Menachem of Yuni: The Pasuk cannot be referring to one's lifetime, since one's life takes precedence [even] over one's Rebbe's! Moreover, one is not obligated to keep oneself alive (so it must be discussing one's death). Refer also to 19:18:3:2* & 19:18:3.1:2.
See also answer #6.
Torah Temimah: Where it is the least painful.
Sanhedrin, 45a: To minimise the mess that the fallen body makes.
See Torah Temimah, note 123.
By the same token, a man should not be intimate by day. Nidah, 17a..
Which would otherwise be forbidden. See Torah Temimah, note 126.
Why does the Torah juxtapose "Ve'ahavta le'Re'acha Kamocha" to "Lo Sikom ve'Lo Sitor"?
Yerushalmi Nedarim, 9:4: Because it is the essence of Nekimah and Netirah - It can be compared to a person who cut his left hand in the process of cutting meat. Do you think that he will then take the knife in his left hand and cut his right hand in revenge? 1
Oznayim la'Torah: To teach us that it only applies in a negative sense - not to do to one's fellow Jew what one would not like done to oneself 2 - but not that one is obligated to treat him like oneself - by giving give him half of what one owns. 3
In the same way a Jew should see every other Jew as part of the same body as himself.
Refer to 19:18:3:1 & 19:18:3:2*. See Oznayim la'Torah DH 'Ve'ahavta le'Re'acha Kamocha' #1 and #2, who elaborates.
Refer also to 19:18:152:3.
Why does the Torah add the words "Ani Hashem" here?
Avos de'R. Nasan (chap. 16): The reason behind the Mitzvah of "Ve'ahavta le'Re'acha Kamocha" is because "I am Hashem" - who created you for My honor. Therefore, if your friend performs acts of righteousness and integrity, love him; otherwise, do not love him. 1
See Torah Temimah, note 129.
Why does the Torah insert the word "le'Re'acha Kamocha", and not just 'Re'acha' or 'es Re'acha'?
Ramban #1 and Moshav Zekenim: To teach us the love should be unrestricted - in all areas, 1 regarding wealth, property, honor, wisdom and intelligence, and not just in some areas.
Ramban #2: Refer to 19:18:3:2.
Hadar Zekenim #1: Had the Torah written 'Re'acha', we might have thought that one must give money to his friend like one like for oneself (to give him half one's money). "le'Re'echa" implies 'to love (respect) what your friend has' - . Not to steal it, to save it from getting lost and to hate one who wants to steal from him (It should be precious in your eyes not to cause a loss to it, like your own - Moshav Zekenim).
Moshav Zekenim #2: The 'Lamed' is superfluous, 2 and the Pasuk must be taken literally.
Ramban: Like the Pasuk writes in Shmuel 1, 20:17, about Yonasan, who removed the jealousy from his heart and was happy at the prospect of David becoming king. It should be just as he would wish for himself, albeit not to the same extent as he would wish himself.
Moshav Zekeinim: Like we find in Beshalach Sh'mos, 14:28 "le'Chol Cheil Par'oh" and in Terumah Sh'mos, 27:3 'le'Chol Keilav Ta'aseh Nechoshes".
QUESTIONS ON RASHI
Rashi writes that Nekamah is refusing to lend your axe to Reuven who did not lend you his scythe. Why does the Torah censure you, but not Reuven, who, without a reason, did not lend you his scythe?
Hadar Zekenim, Riva (on Pasuk 16) and Moshav Zekenim (citing the Rosh): Because Reuven was concerned about his scythe, and one is not obligated to lend out one's articles. You, on the other hnd, are refusing to lend him your axe as an act of revenge. The Torah therefore instructs you to forego your hatred, and to create create Shalom. 1
Moshav Zekenim: Becuse Reuven is subject to a bigger punishment - Nega'im, which come on acount of stinginess. Consequently, the Torah does not need to warn against it.
Moshav Zekenim: As the Pasuk writes in Mishlei 3:17 "Deracheha Darchei No'am ve'Chol Nesivoseha Shalom".
Rashi writes that one may not do to one's fellow-Jew anything that he would not like done to himself. Does this mean that if a Chasid likes to suffer shame, he may embarrass others?
Moshav Zekenim (citing the Yerushalmi, Nedarim, 9:4): There is another principle - "Zeh Seifer Toldos Adam? bi'Demus Elokim Asah Oso" - Since man was made in Hashem's image, one may not disgrace him - irrespective of one's own personal preferences. And this principle is greater than the previous one.
Rashi did not say that one should do to others whatever he enjoys doing to himself. He said that one should not do what he would not like done to himself.
