1)

Why does the Pasuk insert the (otherwise superfluous) phrase "ve'Chi Yirbeh mimcha ha'Derech"?

1.

Rashi (in Bava Metzi'a, 53): To teach us that one is not permitted to redeem Ma'aser Sheini (Tahor) in Yerushalayim - even in order to (purchase Korbanos, to) eat there bi'Kedushsh

2)

Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) word "ve'Chi Yirchak Mimcha ha'Derech"?

1.

Makos, 19b: To teach us that, if the owner is in Yerushalayim, even if the Ma'aser 1 is still outside, he is prohibitted from redeeming it, since he and his Ma'aser ('Milu'acha') are not outside.

1

See Torah Temimah, note 60.

3)

Having written "ve'Chi Yirbeh mimcha ha'Derech", why does the Torah need to add "Ki Lo Suchal Se'eiso"?

1.

Pesachim, 27b: Because the word "Se'eiso" has connotations of eating 1 - to teach us that one is permitted to redeem Ma'aser Sheini that became Tamei, even in Yerushalayim - since it is forbidden to eat it. 2

2.

Makos, 19b: To permit redeeming Ma'aser Sheini Tahor even one step outside Yerushalayim. 3 .

1

As in Mikeitz, Bereishis, 43:34 - "Vayisa Me'eis me'eis Panav".

2

See Torah Temimah, note 58.

3

See Torah Temimah, note 59.

4)

What are the implications of "Ki Yevarechecha Hashem Elokecha"?

1.

Rashi: It implies that there will be so much produce that (in conjunction with the distance involved - Ramban) it will be too much to carry to Yerushalayim. 1

1

And the Torah is therefore providing the option of redeeming it and taking the money to Yerushalayim.

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