Why does the Torah insert the word "ba'Yom"?
Sifra: To teach us that the Mitaher must shave in the day
See Torah Temimah, note 58.
Counting from when, is it the seventh day, and in the following Pasuk, the eighth?
Having specified "Es Rosho ve'es Zekano ve'es Gabos Einav", why does the Torah see fit to add "es Kol Se'aro" twice, once before and once after?
Rashi: To teach us via a Klal, u'Perat u'Chelal 1 that the Mitaher is obligated to shave all the locations on his body where there is a gathering of hair that is visible. 2
Moshav Zekenim (8): It is repeated to teach that just like after the first shaving (about which it says only "Es Kol Se'aro") he is [totally smooth] like a gourd, also after the second.
Having said "ve'Gilach es Kol Se'aro",why does the Torah add "Es Rosho ve'Es Zekano"?
Refer to 14:9:2:1.
Yevamos, 5a: To teach us that he must shave his head completely, even his Peyos - in spite of the La'av 1 "Lo Sakifu Pe'as Roshchem".
Nazir, 61a: The Torah adds "Rosho" to include the corners of the beard
Having said "Vegilach Es Kol Se'aro",why does the Torah add "ve'eis Gabos Einav (his eyebrows)"?
Sifra: In order toextrapolate "Gabos Einav",'ve'LoRishei Einav' (but not his eye-lashes').
Why does the Torah add the (otherwise superfluous) word "Yegale'ach"?
Sifra: To place on the Mitaher the onus of shaving, if not on the seventh day, on the eighth, the ninth or the tenth.
What are the ramifications of "Vetaher"?
Seforno: He is now purified from the prohibition of being intimate with his wife. 1
Why does the Torah repeat "ve'Gilach" and
Moshav Zekenim (8): If he did not shave [the second time] on the seventh day, he shaves on the eighth or ninth. If he shaved without a razor, or left over two hairs, he did not do [the Mitzvah] at all,