Why does the Torah insert the (otherwise superfluous) words "asher Yivchar Hahsem Elokeeichem mi'Kol Shivteichem"?
Rashi: Refer to 12:14:1:1.
Why does the Torah issue the command to bring Korbanos in the chosen place twice, once here (where it adds "Vahaveisem Shamah"), and once in Pasuk 11 (where it adds "Shamah Savi'u)?
Rashi: The current Pasuk is referring to Mishkan Shiloh, 1 and Pasuk 11, to the Beis-Hamikdash. 2
Refer to 12:6:2:1. Refer also to 12:4:2:1 and see Oznayim la'Torah, who explains that also the first part of the current Pasuk refers to the Beis-Hamikdash.
For the duration of both eras, all Bamos were forbidden. Refer also to 12:11:1:1*.
What is the significance of the fact that Hashem, and not Yisrael, chose the location on which to build the Beis-Hamkdash?
Oznayim la'Torah: As opposed to human-beings, who see only the physical beauty of a location, 1 Hashem chose Shiloh and Yerushalayim due to the sanctity 2 - the spiritual attributes - of the locations. 3
Oznayim la'Torah: Indeed, Hashem made a point of locating the fruit of Ginosar and the hotsprings of Teveryah away from Yerushalayim, so that people should not make Aliyas ha'Regel on Yom-Tov for the wrong motives.
One can compare this to Hashem's words to Shmuel ha'Navi "ha'Adam Yir'eh la'Einayim va'Hashem Yir'eh la'Leivav' - Sh'muel 1, 16:7.
Oznayim la'Torah, Hashem chose Yerushalayim, because it corresponded to the Beis-Hamikdash shel Ma'alah,hereas Yisrael chose Shiloh to build the Mishkan, because it corresponded to the location of the second Mizbe'ach that Avraham Avinu built - "between Beis-Eil and Ay".(Lech-L'cha Bereishis, 12:8). See Oznayim la'Torah, who elaborates at length.
What is the definition of "Zivcheichem", "Ma'asroseichem" and "T'rumas Yedchem" respectively?
What are the implications of "Leshichno Sidr'shu"?
Ramban #1: It impliess that one should go there from the furthermost areas, and along the way, ask for directions how to get to Yerushalayim, "and say to one another 'Come, let us go to the House of Hashem!' " - Yeshayah, 2:3.
Ramban #2 (according to Kabalah): "le'Shichno Sidr'shu" is equivalent to 'li'Chevodo Sidr'shu'; "u'Vasa Shamah" - 'To see the Face of the Master Hashem, the G-d of Yisrael. 1
Seforno: It means that one should seek out the chosen location 2 - Shiloh or the Beis-Hamikdash, to bow down there and bring Korbanos. 3
Sanhedrin, 11b: It implies that one should seek all solutions in Yehudah (Yerushalayim) ? the vicinity of Hakadosh-Baruch-Hu - to teach Beis-Din that they may only declare a leap-year in Yehudah. 4
What are the implications of "u'Vasa Shamah"?
Ramban #1 (citing the Sifri): It implies that one should enquire from the Navi about building the Beis-Hamikdash, 1 and not wait for him to tell us.
Ramban #2: Refer to 12:5:3:3.
Seforno #1: It implies that one should come to the chosen location - and not that Hashem will rest His Name among them wherever they are.
Rosh Hashanah, 4b: It implies that, at the first opportunity, one should come to the Beis-Hamikdash with all the things that one promised to bring - incorporating Chayvei Damim ('D'mei alai!'), Arachin, Charamim and Hekdeishos, Chata'os Ashamos, Olos and Shelamim, Tzedakos and Ma'asros, B'choros and Pesach, Leket, Shikchah and Pe'ah - failing which one has transgressed a Mitzvas Asei. 2
Oznayim la'Torah: The Torah is teaching us not to wait for a Navi to come and tell us where to build the Beis-Hamikdash, but to demonstrate a desire to build it, and Hashem will then respond by sending a Navi. And that is indee what happened. David expresessed a desire to build the Beis-Hamikdash, and Hashem sent Gad ha'Navi who showed him the granary of Aravnah 'Yevusi.
Why does the Torah switch from the plural ("le'Shichno Sidr'shu") to the singular ("u'Vasa Shamah")?
Oznayim la'Torah: Because, based on the fact that the Beis-Hamikdash has the power to unify the people, the Torah is saying that if the people will prepare themselves to appear before Hashem in the Beis-Hamikdash, when they enter the Beis-Hamikdash they will become one unit.
