Why does the Torah juxtapose "mi'Kol ha'Ochel" to "Kol Asher be'Socho Yitma"?
Rashi: To teach us that it is only food that can receive Tum'ah from a K'li Cheres but not Keilim or people. 1
Rashi: Because the Tamei K'li is a Rishon le'Tum'ah and Keilim can only receive Tum'ah from an Av ha'Tum'ah). By the same token, we can extrapolate that if a Sheretz falls into the oven, the oven becomes a Rishon (and any food or drink that is inside it, a Sheini) - and not an Av, like the Sheretz (as is the case by Tum'as Meis); because if it did, there would be no reason to preclude Keilim from adopting the same level of Tum'ah as the Sheretz.
What is the 'Mem' in "mi'Kol ha'Achel" coming to preclude?
Sifra: It preludes a. animal food 1 and b. food that is inside a K'li Cheres with a lid tightly shut that is inside a Tamei oven, from becoming Tamei.
See Torah Temimah, note 127.
What are the implications of the words "Asher Ye'achel"?
Rashi (citing R. Avahu in Yoma, 80a): It implies that the Shi'ur Tum'ah regarding food is a ke'Beitzah 1 - since the maximum that one can swallow in one go is a chicken's egg. 2
Yerushalmi Terumos, 11:2: It implies that food that has become putrid is Tahor.
What is the significance of the words "Asher Yavo alav Mayim Yitma"?
Why is food only subject to Tum?ah once water has come on it?
Ramban (on Pasuk 37): Because when the food is wet, the filth of the Sheretz or of whatever is transmitting the Tum'ah, sticks to the food. 1
Rashbam: Because Hashem did not require food to become subject to Tum'ah until one has begun preparing it to eat; and the first major preparation of food is that of adding water.
And the Torah extended the stringency even after the water has dried off, in order not to differentiate between one situation and another ('she'Lo Nitein Devareinu le'Shi'urin' - Ramban). According to Rashi (in Pasuk 38) it is because, once the food becomes b'chi Yutan, the status cannot be removed. But, why does it depend on whether or not he wanted it to get wet? (PF)
Why does the Torah add "ve'Chol Mashkeh Asher Yishaseh"?
Rashi: To include the other liquids that are called "Mashkeh" in the Din of 'b'Chi Yutan'. 1
Yerushalmi Terumos, 11:2: Refer to 11:34:2:2.
Wine, blood, oil, milk, dew and honey. Moshav Zekenim (on Pasuk 38: as long as they are not spoiled. The Ramban says that also their Toldos (derivatives) are Machshir. Toldos of water are tears, mucus, saliva, human urine and excrement, whether they left [the body] willingly or unwillingly. Animal urine and salt that dissolved are like fruit-juice (Refer to 11:34:6:1); they do not receive Tum'ah, and are not Machshir.
Seeing as whatever is called a beverage falls under the category of Mashkeh is Machshir, why does the Torah mention 'water'?
Sifri: To preclude the juice of berries, pomegranates and other fruit, which do not have an independent name like water, but carry the prefix 'Mei ... '.
What are the implications of the term "Asher Yavo Alav"?
Sifri: It implies that the water is Machshir even if one drew it in order to mix cement or to wash utensils.
Why does the Torah add the (otherwisw superfluous) words "ve?Chol Mashkeh asher Yishaseh be'Chol K'li Yitma"?
Sifra: To teach us that.the water is only Machshir if it is in a utensil that is not attached to the ground, but not if it is in a pit, a trench or a cave.
Why does the Torah repeat the word "Yitma"?
