1)

Why did Pharaoh call for Moshe after the plague of darkness had ended, something that he did not do after any other plague?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: After suffering pangs of death - they could not see for six consecutive days, nor breathe or eat for three, 1 his heart softened and he decided momentarily to send Yisrael out.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: Until now, Pharaoh kept to a plan - to see whether he could bear the plague that Hashem was about to send; and if not, to promise 'those suckers' that he would let Yisrael go, and the moment the plague ceased, he would simply retract. But now, when he saw that Hashem was sending plagues that paralyzed the limbs - until he was not even capable of sending for Moshe to make promises, and that the plague itself brought on suffering akin to death 2 - and who knows what sort of plague was next on Hashem's list - whether he would be able to call Moshe even after the termination of the plague. That's why he decided to arrange a deal with Moshe before the next plague arrived.

3.

Oznayim la'Torah #3: The fact that Yisrael did not take advantage of the plague of darkness to flee Egypt, led him to believe that Moshe had every intention of returning after sacrificing to Hashem, so he decided to let Yisrael go unconditionally - and to leave behind only the animals as a security - or, because total capitulation would be undignified. 3


1

Compare to Maharal (Gevuros Hashem Ch. 33, p. 126) - Each of the last three Makos were tantamount to death (specifically, darkness is compared to death in Eichah 3:6). Also refer to 10:7:0.1:1 and 7:14:7:2. That is why Choshech was capable of inducing Pharaoh to offer the Bnei Yisrael to leave.

2

Oznayim la'Torah: Only Hashem gave them the strength to survive, just as He does to those who burn in Gehinom.

3

Oznayim la'Torah: It may also well be that he thought that by allowing Yisrael to go out without reservations, he thought that he had fulfilled Hashem's initial request, "Shalach Es Ami ... !" (5:1), where the animals were not mentioned. See Oznayim la'Torah, DH 'Rak Tzonechem.'

2)

Why did Pharaoh call only Moshe, and not Aharon, to remove the plague of darkness?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: Because he saw how, after the first three plagues, which were performed by both Moshe and Aharon; a number of plagues were performed by Hashem, and Makas Barad by Moshe alone - and Pharaoh only called Aharon together with Moshe to remove the Arbeh in order to apologize for driving them out. Finally, when Makas Choshech was performed by Moshe alone, he came to the conclusion that everything depended upon Moshe, so he called Moshe to make his offer and not Aharon.

3)

Why did Pharaoh insist that Yisrael leave their sheep and cattle behind?

1.

Ramban: Because Yisrael, who were shepherds by profession, owned vast flocks of sheep and herds of cattle. Consequently, he figured, they were unlikely to flee leaving all their property behind - and even if they did, he would inherit a vast fortune.

2.

Oznayim la'Torah #1: Even though Pharaoh came to the conclusion that Yisrael would not flee, 1 he was afraid that, during the celebrations Yisrael would sacrifice all their animals, thereby depriving him of a vast inheritance. 2

3.

Oznayim la'Torah #2: Refer to 10:24:0.1:3.


1

Refer to 10:24:0.1:3.

2

This answer is difficult however, since he should have permitted them to take at least a small number of animals with them to sacrifice. Refer however to 10:25:2:1.

4)

Why did Pharaoh say "Gam Tapchem Yelech... " after "Rak Tzonechem u'Vekarchem Yutzag;" and not after "Lechu Ivdu Es Hashem"?

1.

Oznayim la'Torah: It was extremely difficult to capitulate to Moshe, 1 so initially, to demonstrate his authority and to retain his self-respect, he refused to allow the animals to be taken out, and only at the end, did he add that the children may go. 2


1

Refer to 10:24:0.1:3.

2

Oznayim la'Torah: As is the way of people to push off what is unpleasant until the end.

5)

When did Pharaoh summon Moshe?

1.

Targum Yonasan: At the end of three days (when they could see again - Ibn Ezra, Bechor Shor).

2.

Moshav Zekenim: It was during the first three days of darkness, 1 for during the last three days, the Egyptians could not get up.

3.

R. Chaim Paltiel: It was during the darkness. Even though the Egyptians could not get up, Pharaoh called out, and one who heard him called out... until Moshe heard and came. 2

4.

Hadar Zekenim (to 12:1): It was Erev Pesach. 3


1

What is his source for this? This is written after it says "three days... three days they did not get up"! Perhaps he learns from Targum Yonasan, and explains "at the end of three days" to mean "towards the end of three days." Or, it is logical that Pharaoh would offer to let Yisrael go only if he was currently afflicted. (PF)

2

See the preceding note.

3

He did not say so explicitly, but he said that Parshas Bechoros was said on Erev Pesach. In this meeting with Pharaoh, Moshe agreed that he will not see him again. We must say that Pharaoh called to him on Erev Pesach, and heard Parshas Bechoros in the meeting. (PF)

6)

Why didn't Pharaoh ask Moshe to pray for the darkness to end?

1.

Moshav Zekenim: Because he thought that it was dark for Yisrael too - bearing in mind that he could not see them - in which case his Tefilah would not be effective. 1

2.

According to those who say that he called to Moshe only after the plague ended - refer to 10:24:151:1 - we can say that it was not feasible to call to Moshe during the plague. 2

3.

Perhaps it was understood that he agrees to let Yisrael go on condition that Moshe prays and the plague ends, like the previous four times that he consented to let Yisrael go (PF).


1

If he thought that Moshe cannot see, why, in 10:28, did he say "Al Tosef Re'os Panai"? (PF). Because he was referring to after the darkness would be removed.

2

However, perhaps Moshav Zekenim asked this question only because he holds that Pharaoh called to Moshe during the plague. R. Yonah holds that Pharaoh did not ask Moshe to end plagues that cannot get any worse (PF).

QUESTIONS ON RASHI

7)

Rashi writes: "Yutzag - It shall be standing (Mutzag) in place." What is Rashi clarifying here?

1.

Gur Aryeh: Although the verb "Yutzag" is in future tense, it cannot mean that the flocks shall stand in place from now on -- as they were already standing in place! Pharaoh meant that they should remain doing so.

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