1)

(a)The Torah writes in Mishpatim "Im Kesef Talveh Es Ami Es he'Ani Imach". From where does the Beraisa learn that ...

1. ... a Yisrael who needs a loan has priority over a Nochri?

2. ... a poor man has priority over a rich one?

3. ... a poor man from one's own town has priority over one from another town?

(b)How does Rav Nachman quoting Rav Huna (in the second Lashon) explain the Torah's obligation to give precedence to a Yisrael over a Nochri? Why is this not obvious?

(c)Why does Rebbi Yosi in a Beraisa refer to someone who lends on interest as blind (by referring to what he would do if someone called him 'Rasha')?

(d)One of the reasons that we reject the interpretation of 'Yored Imo le'Chayav' as being that he is permitted to interfere with his Parnasah, is because it is unlikely that Chazal would allow a Yisrael to take revenge in this manner. What is the other?

1)

(a)The Torah writes in Mishpatim "Im Kesef Talveh es Ami es he'Ani Imach". The Beraisa learns that ...

1. ... a Yisrael who needs a loan has priority over a Nochri from "es Ami".

2. ... a poor man has priority over a rich one from "es he'Ani".

3. ... a poor man from one's own town has priority over one from another town from "Imach".

(b)Rav Nachman quoting Rav Huna (in the second Lashon) explains the Torah's obligation to give precedence to a Jew over a Nochri even when it is a question of lending the Jew without Ribis and the Nochri with Ribis (entailing a financial loss for himself).

(c)Rebbi Yosi in a Beraisa extrapolate the 'blindness' of those who lend on interest, from one man, who will persecute another as if he would have struck him, when all he did was to call him a Rasha and here we have a person who brings witnesses and a Sofer, a quill and ink in order for them to write and sign that he denies the G-d of Yisrael (the mark of a Rasha).

(d)We reject the interpretation of 'Yored Imo le'Chayav' as being that he is permitted to interfere with his Parnasah on the grounds that a. it is unlikely that Chazal would allow a Jew to take revenge in this manner, and b. 'Yored Imo le'Chayav' mentioned in Kesuvos in connection with the Chinuch of one's child, would then make no sense.

2)

(a)What does Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar, in another Beraisa extrapolate from the Pasuk in Tehilim "Kaspo Lo Nasan be'Neshech ... Oseh Eileh Lo Yimot Le'olam"?

(b)How does Rebbi Elazar reconcile this with the fact that there are people who lose all their money, even though they did not transgress this sin?

(c)How does he extrapolate this from the above Pasuk?

(d)What does Rav Huna extrapolate from the Pasuk in Chavakuk "Lamah Sabit Bogdim Tachrish ke'Vala Rasha Tzadik Mimenu"? What has this to do with the current Sugya?

2)

(a)Rebbi Shimon ben Elazar extrapolates from the Pasuk "Kaspo Lo Nasan be'Neshech ... Oseh Eileh Lo Yimot Le'olam" that someone who does lend money on interest will lose all his money.

(b)Rebbi Elazar reconciles this with the fact that there are people who lose all their money, even though they did not transgress this sin by explaining that they will build themselves up again, whereas someone who lends on interest, will not.

(c)And he extrapolates this from the above Pasuk which implies that someone who does not lend on interest will not lose all his money forever implying that someone who does, will.

(d)Rav Huna extrapolates from the Pasuk "Lamah Sabit Bogdim Tachrish ke'Vala Rasha Tzadik Mimenu" that it is only someone who is more righteous than himself (a relative Tzadik) that the Rasha will be able to overcome, but not a genuine Tzadik, whom he might defeat temporarily, but whose star will rise again (as we just explained with regard to sinners in areas others than Ribis).

3)

(a)Rebbi, in a Beraisa, Darshens the Pasuk in Behar "ve'Chi Yamuch Achicha Imach ve'Nimkar lach O le'Ger Toshav O le'Eiker Mishpachas Ger". How does he interpret ...

1. ... "le'Ger Toshav"?

2. ... "Mishpachas Ger"?

3. ... "O le'Eiker"?

(b)What problem does Rebbi have with the fact that a Ger Tzedek can acquire an Eved Ivri?

(c)From where does the Tana learn that he cannot do so?

(d)And from where does he learns that ...

1. ... a Ger cannot be sold as Eved Ivri?

2. ... a woman cannot acquire an Eved Ivri?

3)

(a)Rebbi, in a Beraisa, Darshens the Pasuk "ve'Chi Yamuch Achicha Imach ve'Nimkar Lach O le'Ger Toshav O le'Eiker Mishpachas Ger". He interprets ...

1. ... "le'Ger Toshav" as a Ger Tzedek and a Ger Toshav respectively.

2. ... "Mishpachas Ger" as a Nochri.

3. ... "O le'Eiker" as idolatry itself (to clean and sweep ... in front of it).

(b)The problem that Rebbi has with the fact that a Ger Tzedek can acquire an Eved Ivri is from a Stam Beraisa, which appears to say that he cannot, as we shall now see.

(c)The Beraisa learns that he cannot from the fact that he cannot himself be sold as an Eved Ivri, as we shall now see.

(d)He learns that ...

1. ... a Ger cannot be sold as Eved Ivri from the Pasuk "ve'Shav el Mishpachto", and a Ger has no family to which to return.

2. ... a woman cannot be sold as an Eved Ivri because that is what logic dictates (due to the immoral undertones that would accompany such a master-servant relationship).

4)

(a)How does Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak resolve Rebbi's problem? How can a Ger acquire an Eved Ivri in spite of the previous Derashah?

(b)In which way does a regular Eved Ivri who is sold to a Yisrael differ from a Nirtza (who wishes to continue as an Eved until the Yovel) and an Eved who is sold to a Nochri (and a Ger Tzedek who is sold to a Yisrael)? From an Eved Ivri who is sold to a Nochri?

(c)The Tana Kama of a Beraisa permits a woman to acquire Shefachos, but not Avadim. What does Raban Shimon ben Gamliel say?

(d)How do we reconcile Raban Shimon ben Gamliel with the previous Halachah (which prohibits a woman to acquire an Eved Ivri)?

4)

(a)Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak resolves Rebbi's problem by interpreting 'a Ger cannot be sold as Eved Ivri' of the Beraisa to mean that he cannot acquire with the Dinim of a Jew who acquires an Eved Ivri, but of a Nochri, he can.

(b)A Nirtza (who wishes to continue as an Eved until the Yovel) and an Eved who is sold to a Nochri (and a Ger Tzedek who is sold to a Jew) differ from a regular Eved Ivri who is sold to a Jew inasmuch as they do not continue to work for their master's son or daughter in the event that he dies before the Yovel (an Eved Ivri who is sold to a Nochri works initially until the Yovel, and not six years).

(c)The Tana Kama of a Beraisa permits a woman to acquire Shefachos, but not Avadim. Raban Shimon ben Gamliel Avadim permits her to acquire Avadim too.

(d)We reconcile Raban Shimon ben Gamliel with the previous Halachah (which forbids a woman to acquire an Eved Ivri) by confining the prohibition specifically to an Eved Ivri, who she knows, will be discreet about their relationship, unlike a Kena'ani, who will publicize it, and with whom she will consequently be careful afraid to keep at bay.

5)

(a)What does the Tana of the Beraisa quoted by Rav Yosef forbid an Almanah to do, besides having Talmidei-Chachamim as guests, and for the same reason?

(b)Why will the Almanah not be afraid of discovery when everyone sees how closely attached the dog is to her?

5)

(a)Besides having Talmidei-Chachamim as guests the Tana of the Beraisa quoted by Rav Yosef also forbids an Almanah to own dogs, and for the same reason.

(b)The Almanah will not be afraid of discovery when everyone sees how closely attached the dog is to her because she can attribute that to the fact that whenever he is hungry, she throws him a bone.

6)

(a)Rebbi also had a problem with the Pasuk there concerning taking Ribis from a Ger Toshav "ve'Chi Yamuch Achicha u'Matah Yado Imach ve'Hechezakta bo Ger ve'Toshav ... Al Tikach me'Ito Neshech ... ve'Chei Achicha Imach". What does a Stam Beraisa say that seems to contradict this?

(b)Once again, it is Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak who answers Rebbi's Kashya. What does he mean when he points out that the Torah writes (not "Al Tikach me'Itam", but) "Al Tikach me'Ito"?

(c)In that case, why does the Torah insert Ger Toshav in the Pasuk?

6)

(a)Rebbi also had a problem with the Pasuk there concerning Ribis "ve'Chi Yamuch Achicha u'Matah Yado Imach ve'Hechezakta Bo Ger ve'Toshav ... Al Tikach me'Ito Neshech ... ve'Chei Achicha Imach". A Stam Beraisa seems to contradict this when it permits lending to and borrowing from, a Nochri and a Ger Toshav.

(b)Once again, it is Rav Nachman bar Yitzchak who answers Rebbi's Kashya. When he points out that the Torah writes (not "Al Tikach me'Itam", but) "Al Tikach me'Ito", he means that the Torah's prohibition is confined to a Jew lending to "Achicha" mentioned in the Pasuk, and does not extend to the Ger Toshav mentioned there.

(c)And when the Torah inserts Ger Toshav in the Pasuk it is with regard to "ve'Chei Imach" that is written earlier in the Pasuk (obligating the Beis-Din to enable him to live among us).

71b----------------------------------------71b

7)

(a)What does the Beraisa extrapolate from the Pasuk "Al Yikach me'Ito Neshech ve'Sarbis"? What does the Torah permit?

(b)Why can this not be referring to being a guarantor for a Yisrael? What have we learned in a Mishnah (later in the Perek) in this regard?

(c)So we establish it with reference to a Nochri who is lending a Yisrael. Why will this nevertheless constitute Ribis?

(d)To resolve this problem, Rav Sheshes establishes the Beraisa where the Nochri undertook to follow Halachah (by claiming first from the borrower - see Hagahos ha'G'ra). If the Nochri undertook to follow Halachah, how come that he is claiming Ribis?

7)

(a)The Tana of the Beraisa extrapolates from the Pasuk "Al Yikach me'Ito Neshech ve'Sarbis" 'Aval Atah Na'aseh Lo Areiv' (that one can be an Areiv for a loan that includes Ribis).

(b)This cannot be referring to being a guarantor for a Jew, because we have learned in a Mishnah (later) that an Areiv, as well as the creditor, the debtor and the witnesses, transgresses the La'av of "Lo Sasimun".

(c)So we establish it with reference to a Nochri who is lending a Jew. That too, however, constitutes Ribis because, since the custom among Nochrim is to claim immediately from the guarantor, it is as if the Jew borrowed from the Nochri, and the debtor, from him (which means that he will be claiming Ribis from the debtor).

(d)To resolve this problem, Rav Sheshes establishes the Beraisa when the Nochri undertook to follow Jewish law (by claiming first from the borrower see Hagahos ha'G'ra) though he did not agree to go so far as not to take Ribis at all (as Jewish law demands).

8)

(a)What does the Tana mean when he says ...

1. ... 'Malveh Yisrael Ma'osav shel Nochri mi'Da'as ha'Nochri'?

2. ... 'Aval Lo mi'Da'as Yisrael'?

(b)What will be the Din in the reverse case, where a Nochri borrows money from Reuven on interest, and Shimon then asks to borrow the money from him on the same terms? When will it be permitted and when will it be forbidden?

(c)What is the problem with the Halachah of 've'Im He'emido Eitzel Nochri Mutar' which, as we just explained, the Reisha permits?

(d)Why is this not a problem in the Seifa, which forbids the loan, even though the Nochri cannot be the Shali'ach of the Yisrael?

8)

(a)When the Beraisa says ...

1. ... 'Malveh Yisrael Ma'osav shel Nochri mi'Da'as ha'Nochri', it means that if a Jew who borrowed from a Nochri on interest is asked to lend the money to a fellow-Jew, he may do so, provided he did so with at the behest of the original Nochri creditor (which will be explained shortly).

2. ... 'Aval Lo mi'Da'as Yisrael' but not if he lends him so on his own volition.

(b)The equivalent Din in the reverse case, if a Nochri borrowed money from a Yisrael on interest, and a Jew asked to borrow the money from him on the same terms is that it would be permitted, provided he lent him the money on his own volition, but not if he did it at the behest of the Jew?

(c)The problem with the Halachah of 've'Im He'emido Eitzel Nochri Mutar' which, as we just explained, the Reisha permits is the principle 'Ein Shelichus le'Akum' (since we learn from "Atem", "Gam Atem" from Terumah that a Nochri cannot be a Sheli'ach for a Jew or vice-versa).

(d)This is not however, a problem in the Seifa, which forbids the loan when the Nochri is the Sheli'ach of the Jew because, even though the Nochri cannot be the Sheli'ach of a Jew min ha'Torah, the Rabanan were nonetheless strict.

9)

(a)To answer this Kashya, Rav Acha Brei d'Rav Ika establishes the Reisha where the Nochri instructed his borrower to put the money on the ground and become free of the debt. What problem do we have with this explanation?

(b)So how does Rav Papa amend that answer?

(c)What is then the Chidush?

(d)Rav Ashi's answers that the preclusion of a Nochri from the institution of Shelichus is confined to Terumah, but does not extend to other Halachos. Why is Rav Ashi's answer considered a joke?

9)

(a)To answer this Kashya, Rav Acha Brei d'Rav Ika establishes the Beraisa, when the Nochri instructed his borrower to put the money on the ground and become free of the debt. The problem with this answer is that it is obvious, and contains no Chidush.

(b)So Rav Papa amends that answer and the Beraisa speaks when the Nochri actually took the money out of his debtor's hands before handing it to the second creditor.

(c)This time, the Chidush is that the Nochri is lending the money of his own volition, and not on account of the debtor's request, as we might otherwise have thought (in which case we would have considered him a Sheli'ach mid'Rabanan, as we explained earlier).

(d)Rav Ashi's answer, that the preclusion of a Nochri from the institution of Shelichus is confined to Terumah, but does not extend to other Halachos, is considered a joke since, seeing as we learn Shelichus throughout the Torah from Terumah, the qualifications that pertain to Terumah will pertain everywhere else too.

10)

(a)What is Rav Ashi's alternative answer? How else does he try to qualify the preclusion of a Nochri from the institution of Shelichus?

(b)What do we say to that answer?

10)

(a)Alternatively, Rav Ashi confines the preclusion of a Nochri from Shelichus to a Nochri acting as the Sheli'ach of a Jew, but not vice-versa (as is the case in the Reisha).

(b)We reject this answer too, however on the grounds that just as "Atem" "Gam Atem" precludes a Nochri Sheli'ach, so too, does it preclude a Nochri Meshale'ach.

11)

(a)Ravina answers the original Kashya (that, since there is no Shelichus by a Nochri, it transpires that the one Yisrael is taking Ribis from the other), by differentiating between Shelichus and Zechiyah. How does this answer the Kashya?

(b)How does he prove his point from a Katan?

(c)From which Pasuk in Terumah do we learn that a Katan cannot be a Shali'ach?

(d)On what grounds are Chazal more lenient with regard to a Katan than to a Nochri in this regard?

11)

(a)Ravina answers the original Kashya (that, since there is no Shelichus by a Nochri, it transpires that the one Yisrael is taking Ribis from the other), by differentiating between Shelichus and Zechiyah. He says that although a Jew cannot be the Sheli'ach of a Nochri, he can be Zocheh for him mid'Rabanan.

(b)And he proves his point from a Katan who cannot be a Sheli'ach, but who can nevertheless be Zocheh mid'Rabanan.

(c)We know that 'Ein Shelichus 'le'Katan' from the Pasuk in Terumah (in connection with the donations for the Mishkan, which the Torah refers to as Terumah) "me'es Kol Ish Asher Yidvenu Libo" which the Torah refers to as Terumah).

(d)We differentiate between a Nochri and a Katan on the grounds that the latter is destined to become a Gadol, whereas the former is not destined to become a Jew.