1)

(a)How does Rebbi Shimon bar Yochai learns that "Ayin Tachas Ayin" must mean Mamon, from the case of a blind man who blinded his friend or a lame one who made him lame?

(b)On what grounds do we reject Rebbi Shimon's proof?

(c)How do we support our argument from a Tereifah who murdered somebody?

(d)Why can a Tereifah not be sentenced to death?

2)

(a)How does de'Bei Rebbi Yishmael learn 'Mamon' from the Pasuk in Emor "Kein Yinasen Bo"?

(b)How do we reconcile this with the fact that (in the previous phrase, ("Ka'asher Yiten Mum ba'Adam") "Yiten" certainly does not mean Mamon?

(c)Then why does the Torah write "Yiten" there?

3)

(a)What does de'Bei Rebbi Chiya learn from the Pasuk there (in connection with Eid Zomem) "Yad be'Yad"?

(b)Seeing as "Regel be'Ragel" cannot be explained in the same way, on what grounds do we Darshen "Yad be'Yad" like that?

(c)Then why does the Torah write "Regel be'Ragel"?

4)

(a)Abaye learns 'Mamon' from Tana de'Bei Chizkiyah. What does Tana de'Bei Chizkiyah extrapolate from "Ayin Tachas Ayin, Nefesh Tachas Nefesh"?

(b)We reject Abaye's proof too, supporting our point from the Mishnah in Makos. What does the Mishnah there say with regard to assessing someone for Malkos?

(c)What does this prove?

5)

(a)Rav Zvid in the name of Rava learns 'Mamon' from the Derashah of "Petza Tachas Patza", and Rav Papa in the name of Rava learns it from the Derashah of "ve'Rapo Yerapei". Which two Derashos do we learn from these two Pesukim, respectfully?

(b)How do Rav Zvid and Rav Papa now learn 'Mamon' from there?

(c)And how do we reject their respective proofs?

6)

(a)The last proof for 'Mamon' is that of Rav Ashi, who initially learns from the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' "Ayin Tachas Ayin", "Shalem Yeshalem Shor Tachas ha'Shor" (that just as the latter Pasuk refers to Mamon, so too, does the former). We query this however, on the grounds that it would be more likely to derive the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from Adam. To which Pasuk does this refer?

(b)Why might we nevertheless prefer to learn the 'Gezeirah-Shavah' from the Pasuk by Shor?

(c)Due to the doubt from which "Tachas" to learn it, Rav Ashi switches to a Pasuk ("Tachas") in Ki Seitzei. Which Pasuk is that?

(d)What is the advantage of learning it from there?

7)

(a)Rebbi Eliezer states in a Beraisa "Ayin Tachas Ayin" Mamash. What is obviously wrong with this statement?

(b)Rabah explains Rebbi Eliezer to mean that the Mazik is not assessed like an Eved. What does Abaye ask on this?

(c)So how does Rav Ashi explain Rebbi Eliezer?

8)

(a)What did Rav Papa bar Shmuel rule when the case of a child whose hand had been bitten off by a donkey was brought before him?

(b)He explained to Rava that he meant four besides Nezek. What did he tell Abaye when he pointed out that the damage had been done by a donkey (and not by a human)?

(c)And what did he rule when the father refused to assess him like an Eved because he considered it undignified?

(d)And what did the father have to say to that?

9)

(a)When the case of the child whose hand had been chewed by an ox came before Rava, he ruled that they should assess the child like an Eved. They queried him however, on the basis of another ruling of his. What did he say with regard to anyone who needs to be assessed like an Eved?

(b)How did Rava reconcile his current ruling with his previous one?

(c)Rava's latter statement tallies with another ruling of his. What did he say with regard to the damage done to ...

1. ... an ox by an ox or to an ox by a human?

2. ... a human by a human or to a human by an ox?

(d)Why can the reason of the latter ruling not be ascribed to the fact that the Torah uses the word "Elohim" ("Ad ha'Elohim Yavo Davar Sheneihem" [which in this context, means 'expert judges'])?

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10)

(a)Why do we assume that there are no expert judges in Bavel? What is the definition of an expert judge?

(b)We suggest that 'the damage done to an ox by an ox and to an ox by a human' is Chayav because of 'Shelichusaihu ka'Avdinan' like by Hoda'os and Halva'os'. What does this mean? What are 'Hoda'os and Halva'os'?

(c)We think at this stage that the reason that 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox' is Patur in Bavel is because the amount needs to be assessed. On what grounds do we refute it ...

1. ... even assuming that it does?

2. ... even if the assessment would be a problem?

(d)Neither can the criterion be solely the fact that we do not judge Kenasos in Bavel. Why not?

(e)And we also refute the suggestion that whatever is uncommon, is not judged in Bavel, on the basis of Rav Papa. What did Rav Papa rule when a case involving Boshes came before him?

11)

(a)Rav Papa is proved wrong however, from a statement of Rav Nachman. What did Rav Nachman send to Rav Chisda, when he consulted him about how much Boshes to pay in a certain case that came before him (in the third Perek)?

(b)We finally conclude that we only claim in Bavel cases (of Mamon, but not of Knas) on two conditions. Which two condition?

(c)How does that explain why, in Bavel, we do not claim ...

1. ... 'the damage of a human by a human and to a human by an ox'?

2. ... Boshes?

(d)When Rava said that a Shor that damaged in Bavel is not subject to claim, how do we know that he meant 'Shor de'Azik Shor'?

12)

(a)How do we reconcile this statement of Rava with his previous statement (that Shor de'Azik Shor does pay in Bavel)?

(b)Rava also said that there is no such thing as a Mu'ad in Bavel. Why not?

(c)To explain the discrepancy that on the one hand, there is no such thing as a Shor Mu'ad in Bavel, and on the other, Rava speaks about claiming from a Mu'ad in Bavel, we try to establish the case of a Mu'ad in Bavel when either the Mu'ad ox or the Beis-Din of Semuchin was brought from Eretz Yisrael to Bavel. On what basis do we reject both suggestions?

(d)So what is the case of an ox that is a Mu'ad in Bavel to which Rava referred?

13)

(a)Rebbi argues with ben Azai in a Beraisa. Assuming that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn without a real wound, what does ...

1. ... he mean when he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

2. ... ben Azai (who interprets ''Kevi'ah'' to mean a burn with a wound) then mean when he says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

(b)This is the opinion of Rava. According to Rava, who is therefore the author of our Mishnah?

(c)Rav Papa refutes Rava's explanation with the words 'Ipcha Mistavra'. What does he mean by that?

(d)According to Rav Papa therefore, based on the fact that Rebbi interprets "Kevi'ah" to mean a burn with a wound, what does ...

1. ... he now mean when he says 'Kevi'ah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

2. ... ben Azai mean when he says 'Chaburah Ne'emrah Techilah'?

(e)Who is now the author of our Mishnah, according to Rav Papa?

14)

(a)Alternatively, according to both opinions, Kevi'ah could mean either a burn with a wound or a burn without one, and they argue over a 'Klal u'Perat' which are not placed next to each other. What is the Klal in this case, and what is the Prat?

(b)What would we Darshen if they were placed next to each other?

(c)ben Azai considers them as if they were placed next to each other, and the burn must incorporate a real wound. What do the Rabanan say?

(d)According to Rebbi, why does the Torah need to write "Chaburah?